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"California legislature passes gay marriage bill...again"

3 Comments -

1 – 3 of 3
Blogger grishnash said...

So, I'm confused. If they passed it in 2005, why do they need to pass it again? I assume it never went into effect for some reason (struck down? vetoed?), but the article doesn't make that clear.

6:48 AM, September 08, 2007

Blogger Zachary Drake said...

It was vetoed by the Governator, I think.

7:04 AM, September 08, 2007

Blogger ogre said...

It was vetoed. Ahnuld claimed it conflicted with the notorious Prop 22--of 6.5 years ago. That's arguable; the meaning of Prop 22 is legally unclear (it was suggested in the ballot argument that it was intended to keep CA from having to recognize same sex marriages performed elsewhere, but others claim it's broader. It's also been pointed out that the carefully crafted language of the proposition is crap, which complicates things more. It says "Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California." What that means is... well, not what its drafters probably meant. If it was to say what they intended it would read differently; strictly parsed according to the rules of the English language, and in the context of the law, it appears to suggest that "Only marriage" (which is a specific form of contract) "between a man and a woman is valid or recognized in California." What that means is that the only form of contract that can be made between a man and a woman is marriage. That's unconstitutional, but hey....

The Gropenator will likely veto again.

10:08 AM, September 08, 2007

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