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Anonymous Anonymous said...

nice

29 May 2013 at 08:11

Anonymous Thomas Ryan said...

Very interesting post!

My concern is this: doesn't suggesting that an individual causes an event if his action is 'informed, deliberate and free' beg the question?

I am looking at he adjective 'free' in particular. For what do we mean by he assertion that an individual is free, other than that his circumstances fulfil a particular set of criteria which make him responsible for his actions?

The question of 'Liberty' in a metaphysical sense is a popular philosophical controversy. It seems to me to lead to a stalemate between 'Compatibilists' and 'Hard Determinists', who both agree that the universe is causally closed and that all events are caused, by disagree as to whether this entails the non-existence of free will. The problem with the stalemate is that the two sides fail to recognise that it is only a moral or metaethical controversy. 'Hard Determinists' and 'Compatibilists' agree on every matter, except that certain actions should be termed 'free' - the problem isn't contained to the language, though, but instead the only thing the word reflects is responsibility. Compatibilists attribute it, Hard Determinists do not.

This is very relevant to the problem at hand. Since there is nothing meant by 'freedom' or an action being 'free' than that one is responsible for it, your assertion seems to me to be that 'one caused those events for which one is responsible'. If it is true that your notion of causation is normative (and I think probably it is), then this statement is just a tautology: 'one is responsible for those things for which he is responsible'.

Consequently, as far as I can see, that criterion for causation of an action begs the question.

6 July 2015 at 19:37

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