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Blogger Janus said...

Thank you very much Jayarava. Your post (like all the others) is very interesting and provides lots of food for further reflection.

I wondered if there could be any sens of pari- as "making whole" again or reintegrating, what had been initially differentiated or perceived as differentiated (vi-). Without necessarily going into the direction of non-duality. Like getting a global picture, instead of a partial or incomplete one.

Joy

Joy

Friday, March 09, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hi Joy

I must confess that pari-ññā (Skt parijñā) was new to me. It seems to mean accurate or precise knowledge, so not I don't think it refers to re-integrating. You have to remember that the concern with non-duality is not found in the Pāli Canon. As I've mentioned before the Pāli texts never mention non-duality, and are relatively comfortable with certain types of duality: they can happily distinguish between bodily and mental sensations for instance.

As I understand it the concern is part of a discourse that comes very much later when Buddhists were in dialogue with Advaita Vendanta scholars - there was apparently some influence in both directions, though this is really not my area.

You might find the rest of the text interesting as it gets into how liberation of thought (cetto-viumtti) is achieved. I should probably finish translating it, eh?

Regards
Jayarava

Friday, March 09, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Joy

I forgot to say that the prefix that usually expressed completeness or togetherness is saṃ- but we find this already in sañjānāti/sañña (Skt saṃjānāti/saṃjñā) - but clearly this has an altogether different meaning. The effect of prefixes is not always predictable.

Jayarava

Friday, March 09, 2012

Blogger shajanm said...

Hi Jayarava,

How do you answer the question 'what is knowledge?'

Knowing involves 'mind' and we don't know what exactly is mind. Sure, the whole thing is related to what we call 'life', so perhaps we could understand knowledge only by studying the history of life.

Shajan

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Janus said...

Thank you for your answers. I will go out on a limb here and follow my intuition. ‘Pari-‘ translates into Tibetan (from where I am coming) as ‘yongs su’. So my intuition rather comes from ‘yongs su’ than from ‘pari-‘. It does indeed mean completely, fully, totally etc. We can understand something completely as in thoroughly, deeply, profoundly, but also as totally, globally in a more periferal way. And I actually wonder whether there may be an Indo-European link between pari- and peri-…

So I wonder whether prajñā may correspond to the deep, core understanding, and pari-jñāna to a complete, but periferal, global understanding of all the vi-jñānas. Vi-jñāna being a partial understanding. A proper understanding, but partial, i.e. incomplete. Any conclusive understanding based on a partial understanding (eventually further afflicted/incorrectly filled in by saṅkhārā) would lead to duḥprajñā.

So I wonder whether this idea of pari-jñāna may be a prototype of the knowledge of quantity (yathāvad vyavasthānaparijñāna, ji snyed pa mkhyen pa'i ye shes) of Mahāyāna Buddhism ?

I will read the rest of this interesting sutta and am looking forward to your forcoming translation then :-).

Joy

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hello Joy

Unfortunately "intuition" is not a good guide to philology. You're not wrong about the prefix - it means "around, surrounding, encompassing; and therefore whole". And yes, it is cognate with Latin peri-

But as I say the effect of adding a prefix has effects which cannot be predicted from the bare general meaning of the prefix. It might well mean that in an etymological sense, but that is not how it is used!

I'm not going to go down the road you're suggesting. You're talking about a stage of the language that is more than 1000 years after the period that I am talking about. And you're also working with doctrine which has been developing for more than 1000 years. And a huge amount of change occurred in that time - most of it completely unrelated to the context of the Pāli texts.

Such an approach simply cannot shed light on the Pāli texts. Sorry, it just doesn't work. Though obviously speculation can be fun, and I indulge myself from time to time, it's doesn't lead to knowledge, it only leads to fun.

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hi Shajan

How do I answer the question 'what is knowledge?'

Good question. My first answer is 'I don't know'. Trying to define knowledge I found myself going in circles: knowledge is what we know. But what does it mean to 'know' something.

Knowledge does indeed involve the mind, and yes that is also something of a mystery.

However we don't really need to know how everything works: we have the experience of knowing, and that is enough. In Buddhism we can explore the experience through various methods and that helps us to understand to the extent that we need to.

I suppose a philosopher would give you a better answer! That said, I think it is interesting to study the history of life because all life has certain things in common. I particularly like to read books by Margaret Margulis - there is one called "What is Life?" that I've been reading lately. It is fascinating.

Best Wishes
Jayarava

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Janus said...

Sorry, no « intuition », wondering and speculation then. Simply one question: more than 1000 years and no doctrinal relation between pariññā and parijñāna? Are we talking about worlds as impermeable as you seem to think they were? I do tend to think that fun, recreation and creativity can lead to knowledge, but I may be wrong again.

Best wishes,
Joy, homo sapiens et ludens

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Joy. Think about the English language 1000 years ago. It's not intelligible to us. Te use of words changes considerably in that time - connotations drift.

Think of a word like "terrific" - look at the etymology and you will find it means 'frightening', but today it means some exciting and enjoyable.

Then think about any world culture 1000 years ago. Are there not huge differences? I'm not saying they are impermeable, I'm saying one must be cautious about equating them - it seemed to me that you acknowledged no difference at all, and I was pointing out that 1000 years is a long time in any culture or language. Buddhism has history, and we cannot simply treat 2500 years of history as an homogeneous unit. Vast differences accrue over centuries.

I do not know if there is a doctrinal relationship between pariññā and parijñā because I've not come across the words before working on this text. A quick look through some reference books at hand suggests that pariññā did not survive into the Mahāyāna - none of my sources lists parijñā as a word, let alone gives a definition. And that alone should give us pause for thought! If you know of a place it is used in Sanskrit or Tibetan I'd be interested to get a reference.

And again I'm not against play, but one can so easily fool oneself that fantasy is fact in these matters. What I am trying to do is clarify matters.

Best Wishes
Jayarava

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Janus said...

A quick look in the Tibetan canonical works shows that there are many occurrences of ‘yongs shes (pa)’ (parijānāti, parijñāna, prajānāti), variously translated as ‘through knowledge’, ‘comprehend’, ‘cognize’, and as soon as the Laṅkāvatāra Sūtra, translated in Chinese in the 3rd century. A quick look, because there may be earlier occurrences. When were the Pāli suttas written again, and more specifically the Mahā-Vedalla Sutta? At first sight, I would think the difference in time isn’t that big, certainly not 1000 years, nor does the difference of meaning seem to be that significant. So it could be worthwhile looking into it before concluding anything definite.

One can have an intuition and then check whether there is any ground for it or not. Without giving it any attention, one might have concluded straight away the term pariññā didn’t make it into mahāyāna, which may or may not be incorrect. Many things have and are still discovered by accident or by looking for something else.

I will try and look into it and keep you informed, unless someone else here knows anything more about its survival in mahāyāna or other Buddhist sects.

Joy

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hi Joy

The Pāli texts are thought to have been composed ca 5th century BCE, The Laṅka ca. 4th century CE so only about 800 years. And Tibetan translations another 2-300 year later again.

I do see parijñā- in the Sanskrit Laṅka Sūtra as well but my Sanskrit is no longer good enough to know how it's being used. The Buddhist Hydrib Sanskrit Dictionary says : "(thorough) knowledge; here not used in any special of technical way".

For the record Bhikkhu Bodhi translates pariññāta (the past participle) as "fully understood" SN 12.63 for example. The idea here is to thoroughly understand how viññāṇa arises, through understanding what nourished (āhrāra) it, which in this case is nāmarūpa (which recalls the discussion in the Kalahavivāda Sutta Sn 4.11). It's not putting together what was discriminated, it's undermining the whole process of discrimination by not feeding it.

Buddhaghosa comments (Saṃyutta Nikāya Aṭṭhakathā): Pariññāteti ñātapariññā tīraṇapariññā pahānapariññāti imāhi tīhi pariññāhi pariññāte. i.e Pariññāta (in the locative case) means fully understanding the known, fully understanding decisions, fully understanding renunciation; from these three full-understandings, comes the fully understood.

There are some Pāli commentarial glosses (which date from around the same time as the Laṅka but occur in a different part of the world)

Paṭisambhidāmagga A: pariññā is jānana, or more specifically byāpitaṃ jānana 'pervasive knowledge'; Netippakaraṇa: Pariññāti tīraṇapariññā adhippetā 'by pariññā is meant knowledge for deciding'.

So yes, the word has retained it's meaning, but that meaning is just what I said it was in the first place, which is "thoroughly understanding". It's not the meaning you wish to attribute to it.

Saturday, March 10, 2012

Blogger Janus said...

Hi Jayarava,

No further questions. Thank you for your point of view.

Best wishes,

Joy

Sunday, March 11, 2012

Blogger Adam Cope said...

dear jay

interesting about the verbs! so it goes like 'sun' (noun), 'sunny'(adjective) and 'sunning' (verb.. i know this doesn't exist but interesting to conjugate from a noun & an adjective).

"And note that vedeti is the process which causes pleasure or pain to be known, sañjānāti recognises and names the experience, and vijānāti distinguishes between them."

I think i'm beginning to get it...the root of the vedeti verb being 'to know'...and vedana being 'known'... hum... the word VEDETI for the act of attributing either sukha, dukkha or adukkhasukha is useful & merits to be in wider circulation.

Just my two euros..thanks for the info.

be well
adam

Tuesday, March 13, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hi Ad

It's typical of Indo-European languages to define concepts, as far as possible, in terms of verbs.

The habit of citing verbs in the infinitive 'to feel' comes from Latin. In Indic languages we'd tend to cite the root (dhātu) from PIE root *pōl- 'to touch, to fold' > Germanic *foljan ? Old English felan > English feel; or the 3rd present singular present indicative 'he feels, she feels'.

Given that English feel comes from PIE pōl, then phassa (from phussati 'he touches'; Skt. root √spṛś) and feeling are closely related in sense. In other words if any word deserves to be translated as "feeling" it is phassa!

Sunning is a perfectly good verb. Often used in the infinitive: 'to sun oneself.'

Anyway yes, the etymology is relatively neglected, as is the study of how words are actually used in Pāli!

Tuesday, March 13, 2012

Blogger Adam Cope said...

"Vedeti is from the root √vid 'to know' and comes from a PIE root *√weid which means to see; and draws on the metaphor that to see is to know."

is this why the first step of the 8 fold path is sometimes presented as 'right view' and other times as 'right understanding'?

TIA
Adam

Thursday, March 15, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hi Adam,

India has the same metaphor as we have in English: to see is to know. So sometimes words for knowing and seeing are interchangeable. See what I mean?


The first aṅga of the aṭṭhaṅgikamagga is sammādiṭṭhi. Diṭṭhi (Skt dṛṣṭi) is an action noun from √dṛś 'to see'. It is literally 'seeing, viewing; sight' . We take it to means something like 'a way of seeing things' or 'to view' [something a particular way].' So it comes to means something like an ideology - a wrong view is a micchadiṭṭhi - a seeing which goes against the grain. A sammā-diṭṭhi is a way of seeing which is in accord with how experience is. I did a little bloglet on sammā/micchā a couple of years ago.

The idea that this might mean 'understanding' comes, I think, from the orthodox Theravāda view that sammādiṭṭhi should be thought of in terms of a correct understanding of the ariyasaccā (truths of the nobles). It's a rather laboured and limited diṭṭhi to define sammādiṭṭhi this way.

Cheers
Jayarava

Thursday, March 15, 2012

Blogger Swanditch said...

Your translation of viññāṇa as "discriminations" and - especially - vedanā as "knowns" is eye-opening.

Friday, March 16, 2012

Blogger Jayarava said...

Hi Swanditch

I just try to follow the logic of the text, and the etymology of the words. This is simply what it seems to say. I'm not sure it applies to the overall context. It was an eye opener for me as well - which is why I made a blog post out of it!

Cheers
Jayarava

Friday, March 16, 2012

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