MEDICAL PG QUESTIONS

AI 2008 QUESTIONS

2008-06-22T06:49:00.001-07:00

ALL INDIA 2008 questions keywords

MOA of Paclitaxel-- increase microtubule polymerisation
2. amyloidosis in dialysis---Beta 2 microglobin
3. Vibrio cholera 0139--- does not have 01 antigen
4. SYPHILITIC Aortitis-- calcification of ascending aorta
5. m.c. seizure in neonate---Subtle seizure
6. Crypt abscess-ulcerative colitis
7. MOA Clomiphene---INHIBIT NEGATIVE FEEDBACK OF estrogen
8. -BEST VIEW FOR c1 c2 fracture- Odontoid veiw
9. Cervix cancer- hpv
10. MC CAUSE OF Maternal mortality- haemorrhage

11. DOC FOR Cml-imitanib
12. MC PANCREATIC TUMOR IN Men-1 -- gastrinoma
13. FUNCTION OF Apolipoprotein c --- lipoprotein lipase activator
14. INV OF CHOICE FOR Interstitial lung ds- hrct
15. Ab IN Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia-donath landsteiner
16. Torsion testis A/EGIVE ANTIBIOTIC & CONSERVATIVE T/T
##17. Probiotics- used in necrotising enterocolitis (WHAT WERE THE OTHR OPTIONS?)
18. Spermatogenesis ---require low temp
19. Erythropoetin--- does not cause reticulocytopenia
20.m.c. cause Puberty delay - constitutional

21. Ear ossicle joint- synovial
22. Basement membrane degeneration- metalloproteinase
23. Synovial sarcoma translocation- t(x-18)
24. Hodgkin ds - cd15,30
25. Hmp shunt- no atp
26. Psychrometer- humidity
27. Pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow-cong dyserythropoetic anaemia
28. Penicillin in pseudomonas- piperacillin
29. Bacterial index/dharmendhra--- leprosy/dharmendra
30. Thyroid cancer m.c. - papillary

31. Hmb 45 - melanoma
32. Lepra-2 REACTION treatment OF CHOICE - steroids
33. Okazaki fragment-- ds dna replicatiom
34. Diffuse axonal injury- white matter lesions AT GREY WHITE INTERFACE
35. Vitamin b12 and folic acid given together because-- folic alone unmask neurotoxicity
36. Yaws- not sexually transmitted
37. P53a/e- wild type causes cancer
38. Phase 2 clinical trial IS FOR - efficacy
39. Flumazenil- benzodiazepine antagonist
40. EARLIEST SIGN OF Puberty IN girl - thelarche braest bud

41. NOT A Zoonosis - hiv
42. Rib notching- coarctation of aorta
43. NEONATAL Alveolar proteinosis (REPEAT q FROM NOV AIIMS )
44. diaghragmatic hernia INSERTION OF NASOGATRIC TUBE(SPEED IS WRONG IN THIS q)
45. Volvulus A/E- sigmoidoscopy is C/I
46. Biliary obstruction-not by ancyclostoma duodenale
47. Henoch schonlein purpura-girl with purpura and abdominal symptoms
48. Genetic imprinting
49. Drug contraindicated in renal failure-streptomycin
50. female with acantholysis--Pemphigus vulgaris

51. aml Worse prognosis- monosomy 7
52. Prion -infectious
53. Prion- most resistant to sterilisation
54. Vaccine c/I in pregnancy-mmr
55. low vision who--6/18 to 3/60
56. Soil borne a/e - brucella
57. Sarcoidosis- band keratopathy
58. Ferruginous body- asbestosis
59. Pick disease- tau
60. LEAST RECUURENCE RATE IN Enuresis-alarm THERAPY

61. Golgi body--- cell compartment decider
62. Ipratropium bromide c/i- urinary retention
63. Vein in paraduodenal fossa- inferior mesentric
64. 55 yr with uterine atypia- hysterectomy
65. Saturated fatty acids- palm oil
##66. Bilateral torticollis, heterotopic calcification A/E-prognosis IS GOOD
67. NOT A SIDE EFFECT OF Tacrolimus- hirsutism
##68. Hirscprung, no meconium for 48 hrs- MANOMETRY
69. bp measured by spyghmomanometerDIRECTL Y PROPERTIONAL TO VELOCIT OF BLOOD
70. T/T OF Bartholin abscess- EXCISON(REPEAT FROM PRETEST)
71. Fatty yellow liver- arsenic
72. MC ASSOSIATED ANOMALY WITH Coarctation of aorta- bicuspid valve
73. Resistant malaria-drug used doxycycline (REF-HARRISON)
74. Torsades de pointes- quinine
75. Alkalisation of urine -BARBITURATE
76. epispadias ASSOSIATED WITH-SEPRATION OF Symphysis pubis-
77. Nigro protocol- ONLY anal chemoradiation IN PLACE OF SURGERY
##78. PRETERM Induction of labour- a/e heart ds
79. SyntoMETRIN- not given in heart ds
80. Isotretinoin used in acute promyelocytic leukemia
81. Sensory supply from masseter goes to - mesencephalic nucleus
82. Lachman test- BEST FOR acute knee injury
83. Crohn disease- mycobacterium PARA TB
84. Pollicisation- thumb reconstruction FROM FINGER
85. Leukovorin-methotrexate
86. Mullerian dysgenesis a/e- absent ovary
87. Antiphospholipid syndrome a/e-PANCYTOPENIA
88. Glucose 6 phosphate breaking enzyme absent in- muscle
89. Von-gierke disease
90. Biologically active calcium is- ionised

91. Isolation use in- pneumonic plague
92. HYPERLUCENCY ON X-RAY & OBSTRUTIVE PATTERN-Bronchiolitis obliterans
93. Stabilises new clot- factor 13
##94. Placenta accreta m.c predisposing factor--- previous c.s. scar /CURRETAGE/PLACENTA PREVIA

95. post partum haemorrhage--not used mifepristone
##96. ABOUT Rubella A/E-pda IS THE MOST COMMON CONGENITAL ANOMALY(DEAFNESS IS MC,BUT CONTROVERSY ABOUT SEX RATIO ALSO PERSISTS)
97. Protein synthesis inhibitor- tetracycline
[snip]. Thymoma - myasthenia gravis
99. Most common site for bone graft- iliac crest
#100. Allergic fungal sinusitisORBITAL PENETRATION

##101. Rh factor is- MUCOPOLYSACCHRIDE
102. Water soluble vitamin- folic acid
103. Streptococcos antigen shared with synovium - hyaluronic acid
104. Photoelectric effect--outermost electron
105. Live vaccines-2 cannot be given together
106. Normal heart-denervation leads to tachycardia
107. Neck penetrating trauma--platysma breach
108. Nasal septum- no lacrimal bone
109. Growth factor like protooncogene- sis
110. Posterior mediastinal tumour- neuroenteric cyst
111. Therapeutic index-safety
112. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous--patau
113. Enterococci a/e- sensitive to penicillin
114. Death due to suffocation in a/e - throttling
115. Drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardiaVERAPRAMIL
##116. Retinoblastoma with second primary osteosarecoma D/T A/E- P53 MUTATION>CHEMOTHERAPY
117. Triple response-Axon reflex
118. Congenital nephrotic syndrome mutation- nephrin
119. Pneumocystis jevorici-- affects only immunocompromised >CULTURED FROM SPUTUM
120. MC CAUSE OF Ocular morbidity in india REFRACTIVE ERROR
##121. Alcoholic with acute pancreatitis with stone IN DISTAL PANCREATIC DUCT- DISTAL PANCREATECTOMY/LONGITUDNAL P.J./ENDOSCOP????????????????

##122. Fat lady asymptomatic cholecystitis with stone with dyspepsia- LAP CHOLEY AFTER2 MONTH /T/T WITH IV ANALGESIC WHEN PAIN OCCURS/LAP.CHOLEY IMMEDIATE/
123 BEST TEST FOR Diffuse oesophageal spasm -- manometry
124 DUCT PAPPILOMA BRESTT/T-MICRODOCETOMY
125. Isoflurane vs desflurane A/E- ISOFLURANE IS MORE CARDIODEPRRESENT THEN DES
126 Tubectomy with highest recanalisation rate- isthmo-isthmic
127. Posterior column TRANSMITS A/E- temparature
128. TRIAL OF LABOUR c/I - previous classical cs
129. Vocal nodule- voice therapy & PPI
130. Locking of knee- tibia fixed.femur medial rotation
131 Community health centre chc- 1 st referral
132 Tuberculosis of ileocecal region a/e- applecore
##133 Nutritional surveillance a/e ---it is diagnostic
134. Liver lobes resected LEFT TO FALCIFORM LIGAMENT- 2 and 3
135. Diptheria prophylaxis- erythromycin

136. Man with headache and son with leukemia-adjustment
137. Panic attack- 25 yr man ,NO ECG CHANGES
##138. 1ST TEST FOR Erectile dysfunction in opd- sildenafil >CAVERNOSOMETRY
139. Horizontal gaze controlled by- abducents
140.. Special efferent A/E- facial nerve
141. Type b impedance, CONDUCTIVE DEAFNESS,lymph node IN POST.GROUP- nasopharyngeal cancer
142. Transverse lines nails, skin pigment- arsenic poison
143. Right sided aortic arch-TRUNCUS ARTERIOSUS>tof
144. Route of sperms-- straight-rete-epidydimis
145. CRESENTIC glomerulopathy A/E- ALPORT
146. Ring sideroblast- myelodysplastic syndrome
147. Sarcolemmal protein a/e --perlocan
148. Diploic veins A/EAPPEAR BY 8 WKS
149. Cavernous sinus tributary A/E-- deep MIDDLE CVEREBELLAR VEIN
150. Intractable glaucoma- melanoma of ant iris
151. Sibling with cah, present preagnancy management- steroid WHEN DIAGNOSIS OF PREGNANCY then cvs
152. Health is only central government responsibility- false
153. Alcoholic smoker ATROPHIC GLLOSITIS-ANS IS CHECK B12 LEVELS
154 PATCHES OF GREY HAIR..-----alopecia areata
155. Heparin in pregnancy- calcium prophylaxis

156. Mitral stenosis ist sign- ELEVATION OF LEFT BRONCHUS>double ATRIAL shadow

157. Umbilical artery DOPPLER- S/D RATIO INCRESED IN NICOTINE & TOBBACO SMOKING
158. Premenstrual symptoms d.o.c.- ssri
159. Phosphorylase b inactivated state by- atp
160. Pulmonary hypertension first sign- upper lobe vein dilatation
161. Migratory thrombophlebitis in a/e- /prostate ca
162. Mip-2 in lens--- water out
163 Concurrent list a/e-- resposinble for mangement of medical education and profession
164. Digastric muscle A/E-STERNOCLEIDOMASTOID

165. Not a COMPOSITE muscle- RECTUS FEMORIS

166. Abdomen trauma hemodynamically stable rib fracture NEXT STEP- imaging
167 Ureteric stone pain is due to- RENAL CAPSULE DISTENTION>EXCEESIVE PERISTALSIS
168. Lateral corticospinal tract PAIN,TEMP.
169 Extramedullary spinal tumour A/E-EARLY UPPER MOTOR N. LESION
170 Uro surgery bladder spasm given a/e- ipratropium
171. Conus medullarisA/E- absent knee jerk
172. Hiv patient on anti retroviral plus hip pain 6 months- AVASCULAR NECROSIS(OSTEONECROSIS)

173. ENDOSalpingitis investigation- hysterosALPINGOGRAPHY
174. Gfr measurement- dtpa
175. Peptide chemotherapeutic- bleomycin
##176 Bilateral gas in infant under diaphragm- PERFORATION OF STOMACH
177 LOOSE BODIESIN SYNOVIAL FLUID,charcots JOINT IN DIABETIS T/T a/e- ARTHROCENTESIS

178. CARPOBasal index- sex
179. Equal duration of interview eliminate which bias-RECALL BIAS
180. 6 yr old with 2 yr hematuria,no other abnormality-iga
181. child with anal atresia and passage of meconuria SIGMOID COLOSTOMY
182. effect of exercise on cerebral blood flow-- no change
183. Hepatitis carrier- follow up
184. what helps in lymph drainage from foot LEG MASSAGE
##185. upto what level does bronchial artery supplies blood- respiratory bronchiole/TERMINAL
186. Tb osteomyelitis A/E- ABUNDANT PERIOSTEAL REACTION
187. Most common teratogenic CNS infections-- CMV and toxoplasmosis
188. Meningitis in elderly a/e- GRAM NEGATIVE BACILLI
##189. Delphis method FOR REACHING TO CONCLUSION/QUALITATIVE
190. Enteric fever a/e- amikacin
191 ac pancreatitis preferred route of nutrition -post jejunostomy feeding tube
192. FEMALE,25R,SpherocytoES,INV.- coombs test
193. Graft vs host ds A/E- gvhd moRE common With plasma components then whole blood
194. NOT A Facial nv pointer EXCEPT TRAGAL(CARTILAGENOUS POINTER)
{{{{{{{SHOCKED,NO ITS NOT A TYPING MISTAKE ,PLZ READ THE q VERY CAREFULLY,IT ULTIMATLY MEANT WHICH ONE IS A FACIAL N.POINTER,& IAM QUIET SURE ABOUT IT}}}}}}}
195.LEAST IMP IN Non communicable ds- SPECIFICITY OF ASSO.

196. T/T OF PERFORATED Necrotising enterocolitis-PUT PERITONEAL DRAIN
(IF IT WAS AMONGST THE OPTIONS THEN SURELY IT IS THE ANS NEXT BEST WUD BE STABLISATION THEN DEF.SURGEY LATTER)
197. Acute cholecystitis- bladder invisible on hida (CAN NYBODY TELL ALLTHE OPTIONS)

198. trauma in region of pancreas,DISTAL STMACH,DUODENUM --Whipple procedure
199. Whipple disease seen are- histiocytosis IN LAMINA PROPRIA
200. Recurrent abortions a/e --torch
201. Iceberg-- apparent and non apparent disease
202. what is the correct age of surgical treatment in a child with microtia- 5 YR
203. Low radial nerve palsy- no weakness of brachioradialis
204 not included in IMNCI- neonatal tetanus
205 -No langerhans cells in lungs

206 G6pd hemolysis a/e- pyrimethamine >CHLOROQUINE
207 . Floatation test can be negative- atelectasis
208 Kap system WAS STARTED AFTER- FAMIL PLANNING PROGRAM
##209 TRUE Morula TRANSPORTED ACTIVELY IN TUBE
210. Tetracycline A/E- not teratogenic
211 Splenectomy on child on ventilator itp, when to give platelets-withLIGATION of splenic pedicle
212 Ocular neurofibromatosis causes--glaucoma
#213 Cerebellar astrocytoma a/e-poor prognosis
214-INCRESED CHLOMICRION & VLDL RENANT Familial hypercholesterolemia--type 3
215. Action of Bradykinin MEDIATES Pain

216. Chaperones- protein folding
##217 Superantigen A/E- ACTIVATION RTEQUIRES BINDING TO BOTH TCR & MHC
218. Cvs sampling a/e --neural tube defect
219. Flared ribs-- rickets
220. Pyelonephritis & uti CAN BE DIFFRETIATED B A/E-- >(10)8 BACTERIA
221. Testicular feminisation syndrome A/E- ABUNDANT pubic hair
##222. Cushing- high adh
*223. C3 normal glomerulonephritis
*224 Staph saprophyticus
*225. Methicillin resistance a/e

226. Recommended dietary allowance rda a/e- take care of needs of ALL PEPOLE
227. Carboxylation- vit k
228. Penicillin g A/E- EFFECTIVE AGAINST BOTH G+ & G-
229. DOC 4 NEURO(CNS) syphilis- procaine penicillin >BENZATHINE
230- Std, 5 day sloughing ulcer- chancroid
231 Not a Complication of hemithyroidectomy-- Low Ca
232 Pralidoxime MOA? Reactivation OF ACHESTERASE
233. Cervix cancer staging- no ct scan
234. ACHLASIA CARDIA on xray
235 propofol--c/i in porphyria

236 MALIGNANT hypertension histology A/E-- hyaline arteriosclerosis
237.contrast allergy-- anaphylACTOID
238. train of 4- nmdr
239 All are tocolytics except.. KETAMINE(OTHR OPTIONS WERE SALBUTAMOL,RITODRINE,ISOFLURANE)
##240. ALL ARE DISADVANTAGES OF calender method EXCEPT- ???
241 true about lactation mastitis.ABSCESS CAN FORM & MAY REQUIRE DRAINAGE
242 LEAST CONTAMINATION for urine collection IN-- suprapubic aspiration
243 trus in prostate--- biopsy >VOLUME
244 MC posterior mediastinal tumour.. neurofibroma
245 best guide to operate in blunt thorax traumaCHEST TUBE OUTPUT

246 anal fissure IS diagnosed by--- HISTORY & SUP.INSPECTION>anoscopy
247 not true about congenital adrenal hyperplasia BOYS DEVELOP SYMPTOM AT PUBERTY
248 male with sudden death at basketball found hypertrophied septum.. repeat Q - HOCM
249 hitselberger sign loss of sensation in external auditary canal- acoustic neuroma
250 standard deviation is for.-DISPERSION AROUND MEAN
251 complete family size..tfr
252 abortion sticks - mechanism - repeat Q - stimulation of uterine contraction
253 polychlorinated hydrocarbon is..eneldrin
254. Severe hypertension preeclampsia -NIFEDEPINE>labetelol >METHYLDOPA
255 Reactive oxygen intermediates- nadph OXIDASE
256. Soft tick TRANSMITS-RELAPSING FEVER>KFD
257 - CYCLOSPORINE ??
##258. Tubectomy with least failure- hulka clip /UNIPOLAR CAUTERY
259. TERM Dementia precox WAS GIVEN BY- kraeplin
260 Secretin a/e -increases acidity of bile
261. Most radiosensitive phase- g2m
262. Vas deferens blood supply- superior vesical
263. Facial colliculus at which level- pons
264. AntifungalA/E--CLOFASAMINE
265. Genital wart immunomodulator used- imiquimod
266. Urine discoloration IN A/E quinine
267 m.c. occupational cancer- skin
268. Rape, vaginal epithelial cells- lugols iodine
269. Not an Antidepressant- Resperidone
270. Ebbe estlander flap- lip
271 Kawasaki disease- 25% coronary artery aneurysm
272. Not a cancer- FIBROMATOSIS
273. SKIN NEAR large Saphenous vein IS SUPPLIED BY- FEMORAL NERVE(SAPHENOUS N. WAS NOT AMONGST THE OPTIONS
274. Hereditary haemochromatosis A/E-DESFERRIOXAMINE IS THE T/T OF CHOICE
275. Post traumatic stress disorder A/E-NUMBNESS OF EMOTIONS
276. MC CAUSE OF Conn syndrome- adrenal adenoma
277. Meniscal tear location repair preffered- OUTER1/3
278. Coronary ligament in knee joint B/N MENISCUS & TIBIA
279. Diptheritic colitis like poison- mercury
280. H5n1- bird flu
281. Dying back neuropathy IN A/E-GBS
282. Blood supply cruciate ligament- MIDDLE GENICULAR
283. Compound not seen in photoreceptor complex matrix- MIMECAN
284. Gomez criteria A/E-BASED ON HEIGHT
285. ELECTRODES IN Cochlear implant PLACED ON-ROUND WINDOW
286. boyndi ring-- choroid plexus

287. detoxification of drugs all except..Ans is . cytochrome oxidase
288. measles a/e-NOT INFECTIVE IN PRODROMAL PERIOD
289. delayed prolonged bleeding by.. ENDOTHELIAL RETRACTION
290. MC BLOOD TRANSFUSION reaction..ANS IS febrile nonhemolytic reaction
291 transport of neutrl substane across plasma membrane-- porin
292 Rossetes- retinoblastoma
293. antigen presenting cell A/E-ALL EPITHELIAL & ENDOTHELIAL CELL CAN ACT AS APC
294 alpha 2 haptoglobin
295 suture absorbable A/E---- proline
296 PREGNANCY WITH PUSTULAR PSORIASIS T/T-ORAL STEROIDS
##297. Active management of 3rd stage of labour? MASSAGE OF UTERUS/OXYTOCIC WITHIN ONE MINUTE
298 Calcium bids to ? Troponin C
299. Chronic regional pain synd? Anhidrosis
300. TRUE REGARDING SYPLHILLISGUMMA ARE SEE IN TERTIARYSYPHILLIS

AIIMS MAY 2008

2008-06-22T06:35:00.000-07:00

AIIMS MAY 08

1. Q.ABBEY ESTENDER FLAP IS BASED ON?
A.LINGUAL ARTEY
B.LABIAL ARTEY
C.FACIAL ARTERY
D.INTERNAL MAXILLARY ARTERY

Ans is B.LABIAL ARTEY

2. Q.KERATODERMA BLENORRHAGICUM IS ASSOSIATED WITH?

ANS IS REITER SYNDROME

3. Q.drug used to perform stress ECHO?
a)thallium
b)dobutamine
c)dopamine
d)adenosine

ans is b)dobutamine

4. Q.Malta fever is caused by?
a)
b)borrelia burgdorferi
c)brucella melitensis
d)pseudomonas

ans is c)brucella melitensis

5. Q.marker for granulocytic sarcoma?
a)CD33
b)CD38
c)CD117
d)CD153

ans is c)CD117

6. loss of heterozygosity seen in
ans.retinoblastoma

7. Occupational cancer inv followin organs xcept?
a.Lung
b.Breast
c.Bladdar
d.Liver

8. The gene responsible for folic acid transport is situated on which chromosome.

1. 10
2. 5
3. X
4. 21

9. IN ULCERATIVE COLITIS SEEN IS----
A.CRYPTITIS(ANS??)
B.CRYPT BRANCHING..
C.

10. RHEMATIC HEART DISEASE RARE IN
A.PULMONARY VALVE(ANS)
B.AORTIC

11. BY KIDNEY BIOPSY WHICH DISESASE CAN BE IDENTIFIED WITH SURITY??
A.ALPORT SYN.
B.GOOD PASTURE

12. FETAL CELLS DIVIDE AND CELLS OF MATURE IN MAN DOESNT DIVIDE CAUSE????
A.CYCLIN DEPENDENT KINASE INHIBITORS PRESENT
B.??
C./??
D.??

13. MOST COMMON CHILDHOOD INHERITED TUMOR??
A.RB
B. LEUKEMIA
C.
D..

14. AML WITH GUM INFILTRATION
A.M4(ANS.??)
B.M3
C.M2
D.ABSURD

15. TRUE ABOUT GASTRIC LYMPHOMA
A.CHEMO AND SURGERY TREATMENT OF CHOICE
B.MOST COMMON IN STOMACH
C.T-CELL TYPE(ABSURD)
D.ABSURD

16. MOST COMMON PRIMARY LYMPHOMA OF SPLEEN
A.BURKITT(???)
B.SLL(??)
C.ANAPLASTIC LARGE CELL(ABSURD)
D.HODGKINS(ABSURD

17. POST TRANSPLANT LYMPHOMA IS
A.T CELL
B.B CELL
C.NULL CEL
D.

18. HB-8 MCV 12FL,TLC 1500,PLATELET-60000,,,,,DIAGNOSIS??

A.MYELOFIBROSIS
B.MEGALOBLASTIC ANEMIA
C.PNH
D. APLASTIC ANEMIA

19. WORST PRONOSIS IS SEEN IN TYPE OF FSGS----
A.COLLAPSING VARIANT-----ANS MOST PROBABLE
B.TIP VARIANT(BEST REMMISION)
C.NOS(MOST COMMON)
D.PERIHILAR

20. MEDIASTINAL MASS WITH SHEET OF CELLS WHORLED(SOME MORE INFORMATION WAS GIVEN....)
A.THYMOMA
B.LYMPHOMA
C.CARCINOID

21. 28 YR FEMALE MCV-55 HB-9 NO HISTORY OF BLOOD TRANSFUSION DIAGNOSIS??
A.THAL MINOR(ANS??)
B.FE DEF ANEMIA
C.THAL MAJOR(ABSURD

22. Not associated with Nocardia - a. acid fast stain b. kiram's stain c.mucin stain d.alcian stain

23. not a problem village psm
a. safe water>1.6 km
b.depth>15 mt
c. exces mineral
d. guinewarm

24. =.01 MEANS( FALSE POSITIVE.)....
A.NO DIFFERENCE THOUGH TEST SAYS DIFFERENCE IS THERE...(ANS)
B.DIFF THOUGH TEST SAYS DIFFERENCE
C.
D.

25. if mean is less than the median the data is
a. negatively skewed (ANS)
b. positively skewed
c. normal distribution
d.

26. A STUDY OVER 15 YRS IN UK, INCREASED [no ads please] OF AN ANTIASTHAMATIC DRUG CAUSES ASTHMA RELATED DEATHS--will be

1.ECOLOGICAL STUDY (ANS)
2.Cohort study
3.Experimental
4.case series report

27. For high specificity of screening test it shd detect
1 tru pos
2 false pos
3 tru neg
4 false neg

28. THE GLOBAL PRORAMME-Vision 2020-'RIGHT TO SIGHT" covers all the following diseases except
a. onchocerciasis
b. trachoma
c. epidemic conjunctivitis
d. cataract

29. Endemic ascites is associated with
a. pyrrolidazone
b. aflatoxin
c. sanguanarine
d. BOAA

30. FILARIA HAS???
A. CYCLODEVELOPMENTAL TRANSMISSION(ANS)

31. Q9adjuvant used in DPT vaccine
a. aluminium
b. zinc
c. copper
d. calcium

32. which is the best distribution to study the daily admission of head injury patients in an emergency
a. normal distribution
b. binomial distribution
c. poisson distribution
d.

33. COMPARING EFFECT OF WITH AND WITHOUT IN A PARTICULAR STUDY(SUMMARY OF THAT QUESTION..NOT EXACT..)
A.t-TEST(ANS????)
B.CHI SQUARE
C McNemar chi square
D

34. WHAT WOULD BE AN EXAMPLE OF DISABILITY LIMITATION IN POLIO??
A.RESTING LIMBS IN NEUTRAL POSITION(ANS...)
B.PROVIDING CALIPERS
C.SURGERY FOR PRPP

35. UNTRUE REGARDING POLIO---
A.PULSE POLIO PROGRAMME IS UNDERTAKEN IN CHILD LESS THAN 3 YRS AND INACTIVATED VACCINE IS USED(ANS??.)
B.
C.
D.

36. LHERMITTE DUCLOS DISEASE TRUE IS

1.Thickened cerebeller folli.
2.Atrophic cerebeller folli.
3.Vermian hypoplasia.
4.peri--- septum agenesis
ANS 1....

37. PACS in medical imaging stands for

1.Portal archiving common system
2.planning archiving corbor-- scheme
3.picture archiving communication system.
4.Photo archiving computerised system
ANS 3

38. Which doesnt influence cerebral blood flow?
a.Potassium level
b.blood pressure
c.cerebral metabolic rate
d.arterial co2
ANS REPAET MAY 2007 . ANS A POTASSIUM LEVEL

39. CROSS RESISTANCE OF ISONIAZID IS SEEN WITH

A. RIFAM
B.ETHIONAMIDE
C.CYCLOSERINE
D.ETHAMBUTOL
ANS ETHIONAMIDE
Overproducers of inhA express low-level isoniazid resistance and cross-resistance to ethionamide. KatG mutants express high-level isoniazid resistance and often are not
cross-resistant to ethionamide. REF KATZUNG

40. Millard Gublar syn inv xcept_
a.5th cn
b.6th cn
c.7th
d.Contlat hemiplagia
ANS A 5 NERVE
Foville's syndrome following dorsal pontine injury includes lateral gaze palsy, ipsilateral facial palsy,
and contralateral hemiparesis incurred by
damage to descending corticospinal fibers
. Millard-Gubler syndrome from ventral
pontine injury is similar, except for the eye findings.
There is lateral rectus weakness only,
instead of gaze palsy, because the abducens
fascicle is injured rather
than the nucleus

41. Ix of choice in acoustic neuroma?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with gadolinium contrast is the gold standard for the
diagnosis or exclusion of VS.

42. the co efficient of variance of sytoloic BP and sr creat is 20 and 15 respectively. what can be inferred from this data?
a) the deviation of bp is more than sr creat
b) the deviation of sr creat is more than bp
c) " " " bp is relatively more than sr creat
d) " " " sr creat is relatively more than bp

43. the best way to study head injury admission to a hospital?
a) uniform method
b) poisson method
c) bimodal distribution
d) normal distribution curve

44. prolonged neutropenia is seen in?
a-vincristine
b-vinblastine
c-?
d?

45. ecg shows st depression in leads v1 to v4 with history of pain since 1hour. what should not be given?
a-thrombolytic therapy
b-LMW heparin
c-morphine
d-?

46. 6 year old boy with left head tilt, has hypertropia in right eye which increases on left gaze, which muscle is paralysed?
a- right superior rectus
b-right sup oblique
c- left sup rectus
d- left sup oblique

47. in vertebroplasty what is injected?
a-polymethyl methaacrylate
b-polyethy methaacrylate
c isomethyl methaacrylate
d isoethyl methaacrylate

48. rituximab is not used in
a sle
b RA
c ??
d NHL

49. what is not visualised on bronchoscopy?
a- sub carinal lymph nodes

50. most common primary cancer of spleen?

51. venous return of lower limb does not depend on
a deepfascia sleeve
b blood pressure
c valves of perforators
d ??

52. ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE
1.fronto temporal atrophy
2.white matter lesion
3.temoro parietal atrophy

53. pt with mediastinal mass with sheets of lymphocytes and an arborizing pattern of keratin reactivity?
a)thymoma
b)thymic carcinoid
c)anaplastic large cell lymphoma
d)hodgkins

54. for the question on gastric lymphoma, all are true except

ans. surgery followed by chemotherapy is the treatment of choice

55. drug which decreases free water clearance
a)vincristine
b)chlorpropamide
c)clofibrate
d)furosemide

all the above three cause SIADH which means decreasing free water clearance. so, the question might actually be asking which among the 3 is most potent in causing SIADH or may be (although a far less chance) a missprint. i did not attempt it

56. most chemoresistant tumor
a)synovial sarcoma
b)malignant fibrous histiocytoma
c)osteosarcoma
d)clear cell sarcoma

now this is an old question. speed gave the ans as synovial and amit ashish gave it as MFH. but here is a statement from schwartz:

"Demetri 99 classified synovial sarcoma, fibrosarcoma, and malignant fibrous histiocytoma as types that were highly sensitive to chemotherapy; liposarcoma and myxofibrosarcoma as having intermediate sensitivity to chemotherapy; and gastrointestinal stromal tumors, leiomyosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma as being highly resistant to chemotherapy."

57. AFP what is true?
a)major source of afp in fetal life is yolk sac
b)max levels at 20th week
c)half-life 5-7 days
d)commonly elevated in wilm's tumor

option a) major source in early fetal life is yolk sac but later it shifts over to liver and git . so, max elevation of afp is seen in GASTROSCHISIS

option b) max levels of afp are seen in
AF and fetal serum at 13 weeks and in maternal serum at 32 weeks

not sure about option d) but i think its probably wrong

multiple net references gave the avg. half-life of afp as 6 days

58. laryngocele arises from

ans: saccule of larynx

59. phophatidyl choline in a lipid monolayer when ph is decreased below its pKa
a)increases surface potential
b)decreases surface potential
c)decreases dipole movement
d)zero dipole movement

60. true regarding histoplasmosis: page 23 comp

a)early stages clinically indistinguishable from tuberculosis
b)environmental hyphal forms are the infective forms
c)person to person spread occurs

61. paraganglioma histological feature:

ans: neuroendocrine granules seen

(ref: robbins)

62. Blue-white test?

63. poly A tail codes for

ans: poly lysine

64. child has absent thumb, absent radii and bowing of arms
(not sure about the wording) all are relevant investigations except:
a)platelets
b)echo
c)karyotyping
d)bone marrow

65. shock lung is characterised by:
a) diffuse alveolar damage
b) diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
c) bronchiolitis obliterans
d) proteinosis

66. goodpasture's characterised by all except:
a) diffuse alveolar hemorrhage
b) presence of antibodies to basement membrane
c) glomerulonephritis
d) leucocytoclastic vasculitis

67. breast cancer which is true:
a)indications for chemotherapy are only more than 4 nodes and tumor close to the resection margin
b)aromatase inhibitors are replacing tamoxifen in premenopausal women
c)multiagent chemotherapy has been shown to improve survival in specific subsets of patients
d)??

68. contents of deep perineal pouch except
root of penis
dorsal nerve of penis
urethral sphincter
bulbo urethral glands

69. GOLD STANDARD IN THE DIAGNOSIS OF ACOUSTIC NEUROMA
1.CONTRAST ENHANCED MRI
2.CONTRAST ENHANCED CT
3.ANGIOGRAPHY
4.BRAIN EVOKED AUDIOMETRY

70. GENE FOR CARRIER OF FOLATE IS ON CHROMOSOME 21.

71. ANSWER TO THE QUESTION ON PARVOVIRUS B 19 IS ROSEOLA INFANTUM. ITS CAUSED BY HHV-6

72. 1}child with head tilt to left, right eye hrperopia +ENT , cause
1) Rt Sup. Rectus palsy
2) Rt Sup. Oblique palsy
3) Lt Sup. Rectus Palsy
4) Lt Sup. Oblique

73. ANEURYSM OF THE POSTERIOR COMMUNICATING ARTERY COMPRESSES
1.trochlear
2.abducens
3.oculomotor
4.hypophysis cerebri

74. The most common factor in the development of post operative acute renal failure
a. post operative hypovolemia
b. use of nephrotoxic anaesthetic drug
c.
d.

75. which of the following is true about iridocorneal endothelial syndromes
a. deposition of (something) in descemet's membrane
b. increased melanocytes? in choroidal....
c. something to do with retinal pigment epithelium
d.

76. STEROID RECEPTOR HAS ATTACHMENT SITE FOR ALL EXCEPT,
a)hormone responsive element
b)transcription enhancer
3)transcription modifier
4)?

77. Q1neovascularisation of choroid below retina a/e.
a. hypermetropia(ANS???)
b. myopia
c.angiod streams
d.trauma

OR IT WAS CYSTOID MACULAR DEGENERATION????FRNS PLEASE CONTRIBUTE TO THIS Q IF U REMEBER OTHER OPTIONS ACCURATELY

78. retinitis pigmentosa a/e......
A.marfans (ANS)

79. BASIC Pathology IN PTERYGIUM--
A.COLLAGEN DEGENERATION....(ANS??)

80. Q4which of the following is true about iridocorneal endothelial syndromes
a. deposition OF ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDE in descemet's membrane
b. increased melanocytes in choroidal
c. CLOUDY CORNEA WITH..........
d.

81. telecanthus TRUE IS..
A.increased distance between eyes (ANS)

82. 6 year old boy with left head tilt, has hypertropia in right eye which increases on left gaze, which muscle is paralysed?
a- right superior rectus
b-right sup oblique
c- left sup rectus
d- left sup oblique

83. PROPTOSIS OF EYE WITH A VASCULAR MASS PERIORBITAL ...(SOME HISTOLOGY WAS MENTIONED)
A.CAV. HEMANGIOMA(ANS???)
B.CAPILLARY HEMANGIOMA
C.HEMANGIOPERICYTOMA
D.LYMPHANGIOMA

84. THE GLOBAL PRORAMME-Vision 2020-'RIGHT TO SIGHT" covers all the following diseases except
a. onchocerciasis
b. trachoma
c. epidemic conjunctivitis (ANS)
d. cataract

85. CHALAZION IS ASSOCIATED WITH
A.LIPOGRANULOMA
B.CHONIC INFLAMMATION(.....)

86. OXIDATIVE DAMAGE TO LENS IS PROTECTED BY ALL EXCEPT
A.VITAMIN A(ANS)
B.VIT C
C.VIT E
D.

87. Q11law for equal innervation of ANTAGONISTIC muscle....
A.sherringtons law (ANS)
B.HERRINGS LAW
C
D

88. PAINFUL UNILATERAL OPTHALMOPATHY(RELATED TO CAVERNOUS SINUS)
A.TOLOSA HUNT SYNDROME(ANS???)
B.GRADINIGO SND.
C
D

89. VERTEBROPLASTY MATERIAL USED

90. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MATERNAL DEATH

91. HAIR ON END APPEARANCE

92. Q. which of the foll. is a contraindiacation for MRI?

a) prosthetic heart valve
b) pacemaker
c) --------
d) --------

ANS is b) pacemaker ( NOTE that pacemaker in a patient is an ABSOLUTE contraindication for MRI, some other options may also fit in but none is an absolute contr. hence pacemaker is the best choice)

93. increased ICT Xray features

94. Rasmussen.a.

95. pyloric obstruction

96. loading dose depends on____

97. Turner syndrome assoc. with?

98. Golgi tendon body detects dynamic length??

99. blonde hair???

100. Renal stones

101. Equilibrium nernst equation, Henderson???

102. 7 nerve palsy IN WHICH FRACTURE??
A.transverse fracture (ANS)
B.LONGITUDINAL FRACTURE

103. PATIENT PRESENTS WITH MALIGNANT OTITIS EXTERNA..TOC???
A.CIPRO(ANS.)
B.2ND GEN CEPHALOSPORIN
C.PENICILLIN

104. PATIENT PRESENTS WITH MALIGNANT OTITIS EXTERNA..TOC???
A.CIPRO(ANS.)
B.2ND GEN CEPHALOSPORIN
C.PENICILLIN

105. Q4Laryngocele arises from--a) true cords
b) anterior commissure
c) saccule of the vestibule (ANS)

106. pulmonary edema
a)associated with pum HT
b)decrese with exercise
c)associated only with acclimatization

107. Millard Gublar syn inv Except_
a.5th cn(ANS)
b.6th cn
c.7th
d.Contlat hemiplagia

108. Q3shock lung is characterised by:
a) diffuse alveolar damage (ans)
b) diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
c) bronchiolitis obliterans
d) proteinosis

109. Q4Not seen in OSTEOPETROSIS?_
a.Pancytopenia
b.Osteomyelitis of mandible
c.Compression of nerve
D.DELAYED HEALING OF FRACTURES( ANS.)

110. LHERMITTE DUCLOS DISEASE TRUE IS

1.Thickened cerebeller folli. (ANS??)
2.Atrophic cerebeller folli.
3.Vermian hypoplasia.
4.peri--- septum agenesis

111. MACROCEPHALY WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DELAY IS SEEN IN WHICH?
A.METACHROMATIC LEUCO
B.ADRENOLEUKODYS.
3.CANAVAN disease
4.

112. TRUE ABOUT MYCOBACTERIUM OTHER THAN TUBERCULOSIS(MOTT)
A.CAUSES DISSEMINATED INFECTION
B.OCCURS IN PERSONS WITH NORMAL IMMUNITY
C.CAUSES DECREASED EFFICACY OF BCG DUE TO CROSS IMMUNITY
D.(ABSURD OPTION)

113. ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE IS ASSOCIATED WITH--
1.fronto temporal atrophy
2.white matter lesion
3.temoro parietal atrophy
4.FRONTAL ATROPHY

114. TO DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN INSULINOMA AND SULFONYLUREA RELATED HYPOGLYCEMIA WHICH WOULD BE HELPFUL---
A.INSULIN/GLUCOSE RATIO
B.C PEPTIDE
C.ANTIBODY TO INSULIN

115. PATIENT WITH ST depression in v1 2 v4..pain since 1 hr.NOT TO BE GIVEN
1 aspirin
2 thrombolytic therapy
3 morphine
4.LMWH

116. Pyloric obstruction leads to - hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis

117. All drugs can be used in treatment of H.pylori infection except-
a.omeprazole
b.amoxicillin
c.metronidazole
d. mosapride ans- mosapride

118. posterior communicating artery aneurysm causing INVOLVEMENT of THE FOLLOWING
A.IIIRD
B.IST
C.ABDUSCENS
D.HYPOPHYSIS CEREBRI

119. DRUG NOT USED IN PULMONARY HYPERTENSION-
BETA BLOCKER.

120. IMATINIB USED IN
GIST

121. in a critical patient, parenteral supply of aminoacids is given to maintain positive nitrogen balance. This happens via
a. increased amino acids promote formation of proteins
b. they decrease the breakdown of existing proteins and amino acids for energy
c. both of the above
d.

122. auxiliary orthotopic liver transplant is indicated for
a. massive hepatic failure caused by drug
b. acute liver failure for any cause
c. as a standby procedure till a suitable donor can be found
d.

123. villous adenoma in an adult will cause
a. chloride resistant metabolic alkalosis
b. chloride responsive metabolic alkalosis
c. wide anion gap metabolic ACIDOSIS
d.NORMAL ANION GAP ACIDOSIS

124. WORST PRONOSIS IS SEEN IN TYPE OF FSGS----
A.COLLAPSING VARIANT-----ANS MOST PROBABLE
B.TIP VARIANT(BEST REMMISION)
C.NOS(MOST COMMON)
D.PERIHILAR

125. bronchoscopy does not show
a. sub carinal lymph nodes
b. tracheal bifurcation
c. terminal bronchioles
d.

126. POST DUCTAL COARCTATION DISTAL ANASTOMOTIC ARTERY. Not involved is
a. vertebral arteries
b. axillary arteries
c. subscapular artery
d.

127. The most common factor in the development of post operative acute renal failure
a. post operative hypovolemia
b. use of nephrotoxic anaesthetic drug
c.
d.

128. the agent used for stress echocardiography
a. dobutamine(ANS.)
b. noradrenaline
c.

129. All present in cystinosis except
1.renal calculi (ANS.RENAL CALCULI OCCUR IN CYTINURIA NOT CYSTINOSIS)
2.fanconi syndrome

130. RITUXIMAB used in a/e
a-NHL
b-PNH(ANS??)
c-RA
d- SLE

131. RHEMATIC HEART DISEASE RARE IN
A.PULMONARY VALVE(ANS)
B.AORTIC

132. A Patient presents with mediastinal mass with sheets of lymphocytes and an arborizing pattern of keratin reactivity.Diagnosis is??
a)thymoma
b)thymic carcinoid
c)anaplastic large cell lymphoma
d)hodgkins

133. True regarding histoplasmosis:-- a)early stages clinically indistinguishable from tuberculosis
b)environmental hyphal forms are the infective forms
c)person to person spread occur
d)

134. 2 yr old boy presents with absent thumb,and bilateral lateral bowing of arms
all are relevant investigations except:
a)platelets (ans???)
b)echo cardiography
c)karyotyping
d)bone marrow

135. wernick's. APHASIA would have??
A.irrelevant speech(ans)
b.
c.
d.

136. POST TRANSPLANT LYMPHOMA WOULD BE CLASSICALLY?
A.B CELL
B.T CELL
C.NULL CELL

137. EGG ON SIDE APPEARANCE IS SEEN IN
A.UNCORRECTED TGA(ANS)

138. SNOWMAN APPPEARANCE IS SEEN IN
A.TAPVC(ANS..)

139. pulmonary edema
a)associated with pum HT
b)decrese with exercise
c)associated only with acclimatization

140. Millard Gublar syn inv Except_
a.5th cn(ANS)
b.6th cn
c.7th
d.Contlat hemiplagia

141. Q3shock lung is characterised by:
a) diffuse alveolar damage (ans)
b) diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
c) bronchiolitis obliterans
d) proteinosis

142. Q4Not seen in OSTEOPETROSIS?_
a.Pancytopenia
b.Osteomyelitis of mandible
c.Compression of nerve
D.DELAYED HEALING OF FRACTURES( ANS.)

143. LHERMITTE DUCLOS DISEASE TRUE IS

1.Thickened cerebeller folli. (ANS??)
2.Atrophic cerebeller folli.
3.Vermian hypoplasia.
4.peri--- septum agenesis

144. MACROCEPHALY WITH DEVELOPMENTAL DELAY IS SEEN IN WHICH?
A.METACHROMATIC LEUCO
B.ADRENOLEUKODYS.
3.CANAVAN disease
4.

145. TRUE ABOUT MYCOBACTERIUM OTHER THAN TUBERCULOSIS(MOTT)
A.CAUSES DISSEMINATED INFECTION
B.OCCURS IN PERSONS WITH NORMAL IMMUNITY
C.CAUSES DECREASED EFFICACY OF BCG DUE TO CROSS IMMUNITY
D.(ABSURD OPTION)

146. ALZHEIMER'S DISEASE IS ASSOCIATED WITH--
1.fronto temporal atrophy
2.white matter lesion
3.temoro parietal atrophy
4.FRONTAL ATROPHY

147. TO DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN INSULINOMA AND SULFONYLUREA RELATED HYPOGLYCEMIA WHICH WOULD BE HELPFUL---
A.INSULIN/GLUCOSE RATIO
B.C PEPTIDE
C.ANTIBODY TO INSULIN

148. PATIENT WITH ST depression in v1 2 v4..pain since 1 hr.NOT TO BE GIVEN
1 aspirin
2 thrombolytic therapy
3 morphine
4.LMWH

149. Pyloric obstruction leads to - hypochloremic hypokalemic alkalosis

150. All drugs can be used in treatment of H.pylori infection except-
a.omeprazole
b.amoxicillin
c.metronidazole
d. mosapride ans- mosapride

151. Q posterior communicating artery aneurysm causing INVOLVEMENT of THE FOLLOWING
A.IIIRD
B.IST
C.ABDUSCENS
D.HYPOPHYSIS CEREBRI

152. DRUG NOT USED IN PULMONARY HYPERTENSION-
BETA BLOCKER.

153. in a critical patient, parenteral supply of aminoacids is given to maintain positive nitrogen balance. This happens via
a. increased amino acids promote formation of proteins
b. they decrease the breakdown of existing proteins and amino acids for energy
c. both of the above
d. page q 17

DNB ques june 2008

2008-06-22T06:18:00.001-07:00

DNB ques june 2008

Anatomy 1)Deltoid ligament doesn't join med cuneiform.
2)Scalenus anterior -wrong statement-subclavian art.lies anteriorly
3)Pain along medial aspect of arm through in Ca Breast-intercostobrachial nerve
4)Laminae in substantia gelatinosa- 2+3
5)Muscle in deep perinial pouch-sphincter urethrae
6)Persistent primitive streak-Sacrococcygeal teratoma
7)Carpal tunnel syn- median nerve
8)Pudendal nerve- S2-4
9)Pelvic diaphragm consist of – levator ani
10)Lateral displacement of knee prevented by-
11)Abduction of toes is by - Dorsal interossi
12)Base of 5th metatarsal fracture pull of – Peronius brevius
13)Ext rotation in semi flexed knee all except - Fibular Collateral Ligament
14)Does not pass under extensor retinalculum - Ant interoseus artery
15)Section of fibular nerve - Foot drop
16)Not a part of epithalamus is - (parts are 1.pineal, 2.habencular nuclei,trigone &commissure 3.stria medullaris)
17)Striae of Gennari seen in - also called the "band" or "line" of Gennari is a band of myelinated axons projecting into layer 4C of the primary visual cortex from the lateral geniculate nucleus
18)Porto systemic shunt is present at A/E – Lower anal canal/or upper anal canal 19)Structure not passing through inf cerebellar peduncle – Pontocerebellar 20)Ophthalmic artery is Branch of – Intra cranial Int.carotid
21)Nucleus ambigus true is - 9th and 10th nerve arise from it.
22)Not a part of Internal Capsule – Optic radiation
23)Endinger Westphal nucleus – General visceral efferent
24)Uterine epithelium develops from - Fusion of paramesonephric ducts
25)Boundries of pudendal canal – Between obturator membrane and Facia lunata

PHYSIO
1)Circadian rhythm controlled by – Suprachismatic nucleus
2)Preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic secrete – acetylcholine
3)Diffusion of a molecule is directly proportional to – Mol wt/ Temperature/ Water solubility/ Thickness of membrane
4)Parasympathetic stimulation – Increase airway resistance
5)Most important Buffer in blood – Hb / protein
6)Inverse stretch reflex – Lengthening of Muscle /inhibition of antagonist muscle.
7)Myoglobin is present in – Slow Fibers
8)Inhibin causes
9)Hyperparathyroidism asso c – Increases Alk phosphatase
10)Neurosecretory peptide is – Somatostatin
11)Oxytocin – Neurophysin
12)True abt Capillaries – Large cumulative surface area/Small individual diameter/thin wall/incresed velocity
13)Estrogen secreted by – Theca cells
14)Intracellular cation most osmotically active – Na / k
15)Interstitial fluid has most imp – Na / protein
16)Splanchnic circulation – 25-30%
17)pH sensing receptors present in A/E – Jugular bulb
18)pH of blood is – 7.35 to 7.45
19)Arterial PO2 decreases in – CO poisoning/ cyanide poisoning/ anemia/ none

Biochemistry
1)HGPRT – Hypoxanthene & guanine
2)Allosteric type – bind site other than that of substrate
3)Telomerase - RNA dependant DNA polymerase
4)Degeneracy of Genetic Code – for 1 a.a. there may be more than 1 codon
5)Hormone responsive element – DNA sequence where hormone -binding protein complex binds
6)Not a w3 fatty acid – Linolic acid
7)B12 is absorbed in – Ileum
8)Protein in cell membrane can function as – Active transport/Carrier/??/ All
9)Iron present in all except – Ceruloplasmin
10)Fastest peak on electrophoresis – Adult hb/fetal hb/Bart's hb/??
11)Vit D 1,25, OH no role of - Intestine / liver

PHARMAC
1)Fatty food increases absorption of – Griseofulvin
2)Partial agonist – Can bind all receptors but produces submaximal activity
3)Which is most resistant aminoglycoside to enzyme - Amikacin
4)Requirement of iron in anaemia calculated by – 4.4*Body wt * Hb deficit
5)True about Folic acid - Required for thymidine synthesis
6)Pralidoxime C/I in – Carbaryl poisoning
7)What will not be found in urine of person consuming multivitamin tablets- Cholecalciferol
8)DOC for systemic aspergillosis – ?Iatraconazole/?Amphotericin
9)Amphotercin B toxicity is monitored by -- ?Potassium Measurement /creatinine
10)Drug that increases blood level of carbamazapine – ?Ketoconazole
11)True about Valproate is – Causes Hepatic Necrosis
12)Quinidine is asso c A/E – SLE/Tachycardia on treating AF/Bradycardia/Torsades de pointes
13)Anti-IgE used in asthma is – Omalizumab
14)Local Anaesthetic used in I.V.Local Block(Bier's) – Bupivacaine
15)Local Anaesthetic in patient with Hepatic disease – Procaine
16)The drug with agonist receptor A/E – Pentazocine/ Buprenorphine/levonorphan/??
17)BZDs in hypnotic doses consistently produce – Decrease BP/Reduces nocturnal acid secretion/respi depression/??
18)True about Cefuroxime – excreted rapidly by kidneys
19)Granisetron – 5HT3 antagonist
20)Antiparkinsonian drug c antiapoptotic activity -- Selegeline

Pathology
1) Delayed type of hypersensitivity is asso c – Memory CD4 cells
2)Not a mediator in allergic rhinitis – CD4/SRS-a/Brsdykinin/Leukotreines
3)Cells like Reed Steinberg are seen in – Inf mononucleosis/mycosis fungoides/solid tissue cancer/all of the above
4)Programmed cell death is called – Apoptosis
5)Apoptosis true is – Cell self initiated
6)HMB45 is tumour marker of – Melanoma/Angiomyolipoma/??/All
7)Barr body first detected in - ?buccal mucosa/brain/liver/skin
8)Stable cells – hepatocytes
9)Falciparum binds to which receptor molecule in brain vascular endothelium – ICAM 1
10)Following is not a tumour marker – CEA/AFP/HCG/(thus last option is answer)
11)Alcoholism seen is – Raised ALT i.e. SGPT
12)Thrombosthenin is – contractile protein of platelets
13)Cryoprecipitate contains – Factor VIII and fibrinogen (Remember also vWF)

MICRO-BIOLOGY
1)True about Hepatitis A virus is A/E – Carrier rate 2%
2)Yellow fever virus is – Flavi virus
3)Acute HIV infection is diagnosed – p24 Ag capture assay
4)SARS is – Corona virus
5)Not a RNA virus – Hepatitis B
6)Mad Cow disease – protein-prion
7)TSS caused by – Staph. Aureus
8)Infant botulinism true A/E – preformed toxin
9)Superantigens A/E – Staph. Endotoxin
10) Lysogenic conversion – Diphtheria
11)MC streptococcus in neonatal meningitis – Lancefield Group B
12)Lipophilic fungus - ??cryptococcus
13)Cryptococcus diagnostic test – India ink
14)Yeast form in tissue A/E – Aspergiilus
15) Diagnostic in 1st week of typhoid – blood culture
16)Typhoid incubation period – 3 -21 days
17)Perforation in typhoid commonly -3rd week
18)Petroff method for sputum microscopy – Concentration method that don't kill bacteria, Incubation c 4% NaOH at 370 C --> Centrifugation at 3000 rpm for 20 min-->Neutralisation c N/10 HCL, Useful for culture & animal inoculation.
19)Vibrio cholerae is characteristic for – growth in alkaline medium
20)True about Pseaudomonas aeuruginosa A/E-- relatively sensitive to many antimicrobials
21)Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs if – infection acquired in later half of pregnancy in non immune mother

Forensic
1)Acrodynia – Hg
2)Drug and Cosmetic Act-import,manufacture,distibution,[no ads please] of all drugs.. controls quality,purity
& strength.
3)Contributory negligence- ??avoidable circumstance rule
4)Boiled lobster appearance seen in- boric acid/oxalic acid/??
5)Common toxin through vegetables –???oxalic/carbolic/etc
6)Juvenile court -1st class magistate (must be) Female
7)Instead of penicillamine can be used in cu poisionong – Edta
8)Some law related with cadaveric spasm
9)Chilotic line – seen on hip bone for sex determination
10)Test with inverted fer tree appearance – ?sperm in vagina
11)Cholenesterae seen in – elapide mainly i. e. cobra crates , viperade crotalide some amount

PSM
1)Neonatal tetanus eliminated when incidence – is Less than 0.1/ 1000
2)Contribution of employer in ESIS – 4.75%
3)Clorination of water criteria – Clear water
4)Rat flea – Endemic typhus
5)Not transmitted by mosquito – Kala azar
6)Epidemiological investigation of choce for kala azar - ELISA /Montenegro test/ Aldehyde test/??
7)Natural mosquito control agent – Pyrethrum
8)reading of abraded skin by dog – Class 2 – So Vaccine only
9)Sullivan's index-life free of disability
10)Entry of pathogen & maximum infectivity-Generation time
11)Definitive diagnosis of leprosy – skin smear
12)Antigenic shift is in – influenza
13)True of carrier in typhoid – urinary carrier with anomaly
14)Shortest incubation period in food poisioning – Staph aureus
15)Chandler's index – ankylostoma duodenle
16)Drakunculosis transmitted by – Drinking Contaminated water
17)Multibacillary Leprosy is followed upto – 5 Years
18)The concept of Female Health guide was given by – Kartar Singh
19)Socrate's method of health education is by – ?Didactic method/Group discussion
20)Best guide of iron defiency – Serum ferritin
21)Different communities best compared by – Age specific death rate
22)Burden of disease formula – (Positives/Tested)*Population
23)Comfortable temp range – 77-80F
24)Mother to be labelled high risk – Ht less than 140cm
25)Efficiency of Malaria elimination program is evaluated using – ABER
26)Prophylaxis to maniac person not on medication coming to Bihar - ??Mefloquine
27)Percentage of para para in DDT-- 70-80%
28)Corpulence index used in – Obesity
29)Correct statement – ans-Population density 324/sq km / TFR- 6/ growth ratio – 2.2/??

ENT
1)Kisselbach's plexus – Plexus of arteris in ant septum(littele's area)
2)Quadrilteral cartilage – Ant part of septum
3)Young's syndrome – Nasal polyp, bronchiectasis, azoospermia
4)True about A/C polyp – Single seen in choana
5)Sphenoid sinus drains into – Sphenoethmoidal recess
6)Drainage of nasal mucous – Cilliary action of Mucosa
7)Inferior turbinate – is a separate bone
8)In FESS C.T. Scan is advised-??
9)Caldwell-Luc's operation – For Maxillary sinus
10)Nasal bone # corrected by- Walsham's forceps
11)Aspirin use is asso. With - Nasal polyps
12)All sinuses are best viewed in – Caldwel's view/Water's view/Trans orbital view
13)Nerve coming out of Stylomastoid foramen – Facial
14)Epulis is sweling from – Jaw
15)MC cause of fungal Oesophagitis – candida

OPHTHALM
1)Intermittent proptosis – orbital varices
2)Most dangerous injury for vision - # Optic nerve canal
3)Corneal ectasia with inflammation – Ant Staphyloma
4)Keratoconus is not asso with – Hypermetropia
5)Osteosclerosis of orbit – Meningioma/retinoblastoma/?
6)Rees-Elsworth classification – Retinoblastoma
7)Large choroidoma is asso with - ??
8)Pars planitis visual loss due to – CME
9)Facial paralysis epiphora due to - ??
10)Corneal Ulcer C/I in Rx - Corticosteroids
11)Photoreceptor on stimulated release –Glutamate
12)MC cause of blindness in India – Cataract
13)Thyroid ophthalmopathy MRI finding swelling of – Origin/Insertion/Whole belly
14)Endogenous fungal panophthalmitis - ?Aspergillous
15)Aphakic eye finding A/E – 8% Magnification

Obs -GYN
1)At term amniotic fluid volume is – 800ml
2)Amniotic fluid contain - ~Glucose/?Fructose/?Mannose/?Galactose
3)Oligohydramnios - Renal Agenesis
4)Early amniocentesis -12-14wks
5)Immune rejection of fetus prevented by - HCG
6)Pre-eclampsia GFR -Decreases.
7)Fetal adrenals secrete -Cortisol/DHEA/??
8)Shortest diameter of Cavity- Interspinous
9)Large Chorioangioma asso with - polyhydroamnios
10)Commonest presentation of Choriocarcinoma – bleeding
11)Frog eye appearance – Anencephaly
12)Partial mole -Triploidy
13)Cervical change pregnancy- incre.collagen/incre.Hyluronic acid/Incr.glands
14)10U of Oxytcin bolus imm.complication- Hypotension
15)Oxytocin levels not reduced by – Suckling
16)Latzko operation – VVF
17)Drug contraindicated in pregnancy- enalpril
18)Not a tocolytic – Misopristol
19)Not a steroid synthesis inhibitor – Mifepristone
20)IUD Failure rate – 1 to 3/less than 1???
21)Ovarian tumour spread – Para aortic node
22)Folic acid supplement required in pregnancy – Anti convulsant therapy/ Sickle cell anemia/ Multiple gestation/ All of the above
23)30 yr old female with endometrial hyperplasia DOC- medroxyprogesterone
24)HELLP syndrome recurrence rate - ? 2%

SURGERY
1)Hydatid cyst scolicidal agent not used – Povidone
2)Barret's Osophagus is – Metaplasia
3)Not used Breast Ca – Bleomycin
4)RCC not true is – Common in women/ Radiosensitive
5)Acute papillary tip necrosis – Diabetes Mellitus
6)Risk of thromoembolism is highest with – Femoral vein thrombus
7)Hyoid bone is related to – Thyroglossal cyst
8)Young woman who received mantle radiation in childhood is likely to develop – Ca thyroid/ Ca Breast
9)FNAC in testies is indicated in – Azoospermia to identify cause/Necrospermia/Differentiate between torsion and inflammation/ all of above--????
10)Vaginal hydrocele is open upto – Upper pole of testies
11)Excessive catabolism seen in – Severe sepsis/Pancreatitis/??/All
12)Mesothelioma- Decreasing incidence reflects ban on use asbestos
13)Clot of size of fist accounts for blood loss of – 500ml
14)Family history is not asso with – Lung cancer
15)Renal Imaging in pt with allergy – USG
16)MC site of Actinomycetes – jaw
17)Watermelon Stomach -
18)BRCA gene positive Breast Ca – Good prognosis to radiotherapy/bad prognosis to radiotherapy/bad prognosis to chemotherapy
19)In a child with gastric outlet obstruction fluid used – Normal saline/Ringer lactate/dextrose
20)Narrowest part of male urethra – Meatus Ext.
21)Middle aged man with renal failure with B/L abdominal mass – ADPKD
22)Lung injury with good prognosis – Open pneumothorax
23)All causes of painless haematuria except – Acute Cystitis
24)Spindle cell tumour is – Retroperitoneal fibrosis in infants/??
25)What is true abt prostate Ca – 30% of all malignancies in male/10% incidence in general population/??
26)True abt PSA – Lipoprotein/Measured by immunoassay/Sensitive and specific to differentiate between Ca & BPH
27)Curling ulcer is asso with – Burns
28)Hashimoto's thyroiditis – Auto Ig present / Always presents with hyperthyroidism/??
29)Raynaud's phenomenon sequence – Pallor , Cyanosis , Rubor
30)Ca not spreading by lymphatics – Basal Cell Carcinoma
31)Increase in risk of colorectal cancer – Low fiber diet
32)Most radio sensitive – Bone marrow
33)Breast cancer related with – Early menarche
34)Not used for hemostasis in surgery – gel foam/micronised cellulose/micronised collagen/
35)highest prognostic value in breast cancer – H/O ca in contralateral breast.
36)Complication of epidural Anaesthesia A/E– cord compression/low volume headache/backache/meningitis
37)Total spinal Anaesthesia seen A/E – hypotension/tachycardia/respiratory depression/unconsciousness

orthopaedics
1)Stress # of- 2nd metatarsal
2)# Neck of femur- Ext rotation and adduction
3)Tuberculous spine mc site- T12/L1
4)Tuberculous arthritis first sign- reduced jt space
5)PID investigation of choice- MRI
6)Clutton jt MC cause- Diabetes Mellitus
7)Neuropathic jt not seen in – DM /amyloidosis/leprosy/sarcoidosis
8)Dactylitis not seen in- sarcoidosis/psoriatic arthritis/tuberculosis/reactive arthritis
9)Standing on toes not possible in paralysis of- Gastrocnemius
10)Card test- Ulnar Nerve
11)Onion peel appearance – Ewig's sarcoma
12)Rheumatoid affect axial skeleton – cervical vertebrae
13)AVN commonly in – intra capsular # NOF
14)Treatment of choice for postmenopausal osteoporosis- Raloxefine
15)Nerve regeneration – 1 mm/day

MEDICINE
1)Displacement of Apex to Lt. And downward – LVH
2)Sinus Bradycardia – less than 60
3)Blood culture is diagnostic in – Infective endocarditis
4)MCC of infective endocarditis – Strepto Viridans
5)Atherosclerosis asso. Infection – Chlymadia pneumonae
6)Osler's nodes – SABE
7)CPAP asso c A/E – Incresed Cardiac output
8)Systolic murmur asso c – Ejection click
9)Physiologocal murmur asso c A/E – Distolic murmur
10)Conn's syndrome – Hyperaldosteronism c Hypokalemia
11)Pure red cell aplasia is asso c - Thymoma
12)Exogenous insulin is differentiated from endogenous by – Presence of 'C' peptide
13)Metabolic syndrome is asso c A/E – Incre HDL
14)Chynes Stokes breathing – Metabolic alkolosis
15)Granulomatous condition with hypercalcemia – Sarcoidosis
16)Apoplexy – Sudden attack of Paralysis
17)Viral Meningitis not asso c – Normal Sugar/Normal chloride/Lymphocytes/Decreased proteins
18)CRF anaemia due to – Erythropoietin deficiency
19)Autosomal Dominant A/E – Beta thallasemia
20)MC cause of Secondary HTN – Renovascular disease
21)Refractory HTN commonest cause – Pt non compliance/Drug induced/ Pheochromocytoma
22)Hypokalemia produces ECG changes A/E – Tall 'T' waves

23)Angina duration – 1-5mins/5-10mins/15mins/30mins
24)Unstable angina – Crescendo with normal ECG
25)Sino atrial disease – Atrial ectopic/Ventricular ectopic/Sinus arrest/Sinus Arrythmia
26)Repeat as above
27)Adenoma Sebaceum in Tuberous Sclerosis is – Angiofibroma
28)Drug induced lupus- anti histone antibodies
29)Portwine urine seen in – porphyria/ nephritis/melanoma/ All of the above
30)Nephritis syndrome A/E – Hypertension/ Hematuria/oliguria/oedema
31)Hepatic carcinogen is – Aflatoxin
32)Liver cirrhosis is d/t – Galactosemia
33)Parentral fat nutrition c/i – Hyperlipidemia/DM /thrombotic states/All
34)Prophylaxis of pneumocystis carinii advised – AIDS/Symtomatic HIV/asymptomatic HIV/acute HIV
35)Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia - ?inter-alveolar septum
36)Normal urinary protein excretion - <150mg/150-200/200-250/250-300
37)Loud P2 is with - Pulmonary HTN
38)Hydropic degeneration of Basal Cell seen in –Lichen planus/Lichen sclerosis atrphicus/??/??/

PEDIATRICS
1)Nada's criteria for – heart disease
2)TOF radiological features A/E - ??Rt sided arch of Aorta
3)Single Umbilical artery is asso with cong anomalies – 10-20%
4)The organ in Child with same size as adult – Pituitary/Eye/Adrenal/thymus
5)Brown fat is present in A/E – Cheek
6)Fore milk contain A/E – Fat
7)MC valve asso with Rheumatic affection – Mitral
8)Ratio of chest compression to breath in child – 3:1
9)Thallasemia faces not present – Anti mongoloid slant
10)1 yr baby with diarrhoea flushing , bone pain, fullness in flanks- neuroblastoma
11)Fetal hemoglobin – α2/γ2
12)Brain to liver ratio in malnourished – 1:2/3:1/2:1/5:1
13)Hypsrrythmia seen in – West syndrome{infantile spasm}

Psychiatry
1)Commonest psychiatric diagnosis – Depression
2)Psychosis is asso with – Delusion
3)In a patient with mania drugs to be used is – Mood stabilizer
4)Excessive buying is called – Oniomania

pg questions set 4

2007-11-25T07:47:00.000-08:00

Question 101: Commonest manifestation of alcohol withdrawal syndrome

is ?
A) Tremors
B) Diarrhoea
C) Lacrimation
D)

Question 102: Commonest site for CSF rhinorrhoea is ?
A) Ethmoid sinus
B) Frontal sinus
C) Petrous
D) Sphenoid sinus

Question 103: Conversion of short term memory to long term memory

occurs in ?
A) Frontal cortex
B) Hippocampus
C) Amygdala
D)

Question 104: CSF picture in Tubercular meningitis ?
A) increased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
B) increased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes
C) decreased protein, increased sugars, increased lymphocytes
D) decreased protein, decreased sugars, increased lymphocytes

Question 105: Delusion is a disorder of ?
A) Thought
B) Perception
C) Insight
D) Cognition

Question 106: Dexamethasone is given to mother in third trimester ?
A) To reduce hyaline membrane disease / Fetal pulmonary maturity
B)
C)
D)

Question 107: Dinitrophenol causes ?
A) Uncoupling of Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation
B)
C)
D)

Question 108: Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates

between two countries. This is done because of differences in ?
A) Causes of death
B) Numerators
C) Age distributions
D) Denominators

Question 109: Drug induced lupus erythematosus is most frequently

associated with ?
A) anti-histone antibodies
B) anti-ro antibodies
C) anti-centromere antibodies
D) anti-mitochondrial antibodies

Question 110: Drug not used in erectile dysfunction is ?
A) Phenylephrine
B) Testosterone
C) Alprostadil
D)

Question 111: Drug of choice for OCD ?
A) Imipramine
B) Fluoxetine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Benzodiazepine

Question 112: Drug used in obesity are all except ?
A) Sibutramine
B) Orlistat
C) Olestra
D) Neuropeptide y analogue

Question 113: Dubin Johnson syndrome, test used is ?
A) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase
B) Bromosulphthalein test
C) Hippurate test
D) Transaminase

Question 114: Earliest milestone to be achieved is ?
A) Mirror Gazing / Playing
B) Pincer grip
C) Crawling
D) Creeping

Question 115: ECG manifestations of hypokalemia include ?
A) Tall t waves
B) PR prolongation with ST depression
C) Flattening of P wave
D) Broard QRS

Question 116: Enzyme not stable at acidic pH are all except ?
A) Trypsin
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Pepsin
D) Carboxypeptidase

Question 117: External cephalic version is contraindicated in ?
A) Anemia
B) Flexed Breech
C) PIH
D)

Question 118: FAB L3 refers to ?
A) pre-B ALL
B) T cell ALL
C) B cell ALL
D) Mixed ALL

Question 119: Factor present in final common complement pathway ?
A) C4
B) C3
C) C5
D) Protein B
E) C2

Question 120: Fetus with increased nuchal translucency at 14 wks is seen

in ?
A) Down's syndrome
B) Esophageal atresia
C) Turner's syndrome
D)

Question 121: Fibroid causes all of the following except ?
A) Menstrual irregularities
B) Infertility
C) Abdominal Mass
D) Amenorrhoea

Question 122: Filgrastim is used in the treatment of ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Filaria
C) Malaria
D) Anaemia

Question 123: Finasteride acts via ?
A) Alpha blockade
B) 5-alpha reductase inhibition
C) Selective alpha-1 blockade
D) Androgen receptor antagonism

Question 124: Findings in DIC include all except ?
A) increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased

thrombin-antithrombin complexes
B) increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III
C) increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin

complexes
D) increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets

Question 125: For protein purification and analysis all are used except ?
A) centrifugation
B) densitometry
C) electrophoresis
D) chromatography

Question 126: Good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all

except ?
A) Common ALL subtype
B) pre-B ALL
C) Hyperploidy
D) Female gender

Question 127: Heart muscle all true except ?
A) Acts as syncytium
B) has multiple nuclei
C) has gap junctions
D)

Question 128: Herd immunity, all are true except ?
A) Depends on clinical and subclinical cases
B) Influenced by immunization
C) Depends on presence of alternate host
D) Herd immunity is constant

Question 129: Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of all except ?
A) ankyrin
B) spectrin
C) anion exchanger
D) glycophorin 2

Question 130: HMP shunt occurs in ?
A) Cytosol
B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum
D)

Question 131: HMP Shunt Oxidase phase generates ?
A) Ribose
B) NADPH
C) Pyruvate is formed by the non-oxidative phase
D)

Question 132: Hormone not secreted by kidney ?
A) Angiotensin 1
B) 1, 25 Di hydroxy cholecalciferol
C) Erythropoietin
D) Renin

Question 133: HRT is helpful in all of the following except ?
A) Vaginal atrophy
B) Flushing
C) Osteoporosis
D) Coronary Heart Disease

Question 134: Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is least likely associated with

?
A) Recurrent abortions
B) Polyhydramnios
C) PIH
D) Preterm labour

Question 135: Immediate response to tissue injury ?
A) Neutropenia
B) Neutrophilia
C) Monocytosis
D)

Question 136: Impact and efficiency of iodine program impact can be

given by ?
A) Goitre in pregnant women
B) Neonatal thyroxine levels
C) Urinary iodine
D)

Question 137: In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal

membrane, urine drains into ?
A) Deep perineal pouch
B) Superficial perineal pouch
C)
D)

Question 138: In a case with blunt injury abdomen, the incision for

emergency laparotomy should be ?
A) Paramedian incision
B) Midline incision
C) Transverse upper abdominal incision
D) Subcostal incision

Question 139: In a patient with cardiogenic shock and anterior wall

infarction, best treatment of choice is ?
A) Angiography with angioplasty
B) Intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)
C) Dopamine
D) Streptokinase

Question 140: In Bishop's score all are included except ?
A) Effacement of Cervix
B) Dilatation of Cervix
C) Station of head
D) Interspinous diameter

Question 141: In Caudal block for infant which is Contraindicated ?
A) remifentanil
B) sufentanil
C) morphine
D) butorphanol

Question 142: In MEN 1, most common is ?
A) Insulinoma
B) Gastrinoma
C) Glucagonoma
D)

Question 143: In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured is ?
A) Urethra
B) Urinary bladder
C) Ureter
D)

Question 144: Indicator for CSF leak ?
A) Beta 2 transferrin
B) Beta protein trace
C) Dye test
D)

Question 145: Investigation not required in osteosarcoma ?
A) MRI femur
B) Bone marrow biopsy
C) CT chest
D) Bone Scan

Question 146: Investigation of choice to diagnose amyloidosis ?
A) Rectal biopsy
B)
C)
D)

Question 147: Iron deficiency anaemia is associated with ?
A) Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
B) Decreased TIBC, decreased Ferritin
C) Normal TIBC, decreased Ferritin
D) Normal TIBC, increased Ferritin

Question 148: Isotope used in radioisotope scanning is ?
A) I 131
B) I 123
C) I 125
D) I 127

Question 149:In LAC OPERON function of cap gene ?
A) negative regulation
B) positive regulation
C)
D)

Question 150: Lamina Cribrosa is not formed in which of the following

conditions ?
A) Morning Glory Syndrome
B) Nanophthalmia
C) Coloboma of retina
D) Optic nerve agenesis

pg questions set 3

2007-11-25T00:31:00.001-08:00

Question 12: Which of the following is an antiapoptotic gene ?
A) C-myc
B) P53
C) bcl-2
D) bax

Question 13: The following is not a feature of Alzheimer's

disease?
A) Neurofibrillary tangles
B) Senile (neuritic) plaques
C) Amyloid angiopathy
D) Lewy bodies

Question 14: Which of the following is an autosomal dominant

metabolic disorder?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Phenylketonuria
C) alpha - 1 - antitrypsin deficiency
D) Familial hypercholesterolemia

Question 15: To which of the following events the good outcome

in Neuroblastoma is associated with ?
A) Diploidy
B) N-myc amplification
C) Chromosome 1 p deletion
D) Trk A expression

Question 16: Serum C3 is persistently low in the following

except?
A) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
B) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C) Lupus nephritis
D) Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis

Question 17: In which of the following conditions the level of

creatinine kinase-I increases?
A) Myocardial Ischemia
B) Brain Ischemia
C) Kidney damage
D) Electrical cardioversion

Question 18: Kinky - hair disease is a disorder where an

affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow,

brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs. A

is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had

sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother's brother

also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the

possible mode of inheritance in her family?
A) X-linked recessive
B) X-linked dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Autosomal dominant

Question 19: Males who are sexually underdeveloped with

rudimentary testes and prostate glands, sparse pubic and facial

hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to

have the chromosome complement of?
A) 46, XYY
B) 46, XY
C) 46, XXY
D) 46, X

Question 20: Which of the following is the feature of Y

chromosome?
A) Acrocentric
B) Telocentric
C) Submetacentric
D) Metacentric

Question 21: In Budd Chiari syndrome, the site of venous

thrombosis is?
A) infrahepatic inferior vena cava
B) infrarenal inferior vena cava
C) hepatic veins
D) portal vein

Question 22: In patients with cirrhosis of the liver the site

of obstruction in the portal system is in the?
A) Hepatic vein
B) Post sinusoidal
C) Extra heaptic portal vein
D) Sinusoids

Question 1: Clinically significant drug interaction occurs

between pyridoxine and all the following drugs except?
A) Isoniazid
B) Cyclosporine
C) Levodopa
D) Hydralazine

Question 2: Which of the following statements is not true about

tacrolimus?
A) It is a macrolide antibiotic
B) It is indicated for the prophylaxis of organ transplant

rejection
C) Glucose intolerance is a well recognized side effect
D) It can be safely administered with any nephrotoxic drug

Question 3: All of the following anticancer agents cause bone

marrow depression except?
A) Chlorambucil
B) Daunorubicin
C) Doxorubicin
D) Flutamide

Question 4: Which of the following is not a nucleoside reverse

transcriptase inhibitor?
A) Zalcitabine
B) Lamivudine
C) Nevirapine
D) Didanosine

Question 5: A 30 year old pregnant woman developed

tuberculosis. Which of the following antitubercular drugs

should not be used?
A) INH
B) Rifampicin
C) Streptomycin
D) Ethambutol

Question 6: Patients suffering from multidrug resistant

tuberculosis can be treated with all of the following drugs

except?
A) Tobramycin
B) Amikacin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Clarithromycin

Question 7: A known sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis

patient currently on INH, rifampicin, pyriziamide and

ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100 /

µL and viral load was more than 50,000 copies/mL. Which of the

following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided?
A) Indinavir
B) Lamivudin
C) Ritonavir
D) Efavirenz

Question 8: A post-operative patient developed septicemia and

was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by a new

resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even

after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the

charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had

started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually

antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most

likely combination that was given?
A) Vancomycin and Amikacin
B) Cephelexin and Gentamicin
C) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
D) Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin

Question 9: Haemophilus influenzae has been isolated from the

CSF of a two year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain

is beta-lactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol.

The most appropriate antimicrobial choice in such a situation

is?
A) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Third-generation cephalosporin
D) Vancomycin

Question 10: Which of the following fluoroquinolones does not

require dose adjustment in a patient with creatinine clearance

of < 50 mg/min?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Trovafloxacin
C) Lomefloxacin
D) Sparfloxacin

Question 11: Which of the following antimicrobials has

antipseudomonal action?
A) Cefpodoxime proxetil
B) Ceforanide
C) Cefotetan
D) Cefoperazone

Question 12: Which of the following statements is not true

regarding sulfonamides?
A) Sulfasalazine is absorbed well from gastrointestinal tract
B) Crystalluria can occur with sulfonamide administration
C) Sulfonamide administration to newborn may cause kernicterus
D) Sulfonamides are of value in treatment of infections due to

Nocardia species

Question 13: Which one of the following statements about

biguanides is not true?
A) Do not stimulate insulin release
B) Decrease hepatic glucose production
C) Renal dysfunction is not a contraindication for their use
D) Can be combined with sulfonylureas

Question 14: All of the following statements about an

alpha-glucosidase inhibitor are true except?
A) Reduces intestinal absorption of carbohydrates
B) Effective in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus
C) Hypoglycemia is a common and serious side effect
D) Can be used with other oral hypoglycemic agents

Question 15: Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a

premature baby is?
A) Domperidone
B) Metoclopramide
C) Cisapride
D) Omeprazole

Question 16: A patient of peptic ulcer was prescribed

ranitidine and sucralfate in the morning hours. Why is this

combination incorrect?
A) Ranitidine combines with sucralfate and prevents its action
B) Combination of these two drugs produces serious sideeffects

like agranulocytosis
C) Ranitidine decreases the gastric pH so sucralfate is not

able to act
D) Sucralfate inhibits absorption of ranitidine

Question 17: All of the following are true about amiodarone

induced thyroid dysfunction except?
A) Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas
B) Hypothyroidism is more common in men
C) Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity
D) Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of

serum T4 levels

Question 18: Which of the following is not an adverse effect of

chronic amiodarone therapy?
A) Pulmonary fibrosis
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 19: All of the following statements regarding

interactions of levodopa are correct except?
A) In parkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
B) It is a prodrug
C) Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism
D) Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its

therapeutic potential

Question 20: Which of the following action is ascribed to delta

type of opioid receptors?
A) Supraspinal analgesis
B) Respiratory depression
C) Euphoria
D) Reduced intestinal motility

Question 21: Morphine can be used in all the following

conditions except?
A) Head injury
B) Asthma
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Diabetes

Question 22: A 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with

combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of

seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range.

All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to

valproate except?
A) Weight gain of 5 kg
B) Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L
C) Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 microgm/dL
D) Lymphadenopathy

Question 23: Which of the following does not bind to GABA

receptor chloride channels?
A) Ethanol
B) Alphaxolone
C) Zolpidem
D) Buspirone

Question 24: Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of

all of the following conditions except?
A) Acute decompensated heart failure
B) Hypotension
C) Hypertension
D) Erectile dysfunction

Question 25: In which of the following phases of clinical trial

of drugs ethical clearance is not required?
A) Phase I
B) Phase II
C) Phase III
D) Phase IV

Question 26: A highly ionized drug?
A) Is excreted mainly by the kidneys
B) Crosses the placental barrier easily
C) Is well absorbed from the intestine
D) Is highly protein bound

Question 1: The enzyme associated with the conversion of

androgen to oestrogen in the growing ovarian follicle is?
A) Desmolase
B) Isomerase
C) Aromatase
D) Hydroxylase

Question 2: Before the onset of puberty, the GnRH neurons are

under the inhibitory control of ?
A) Glycine
B) Glutamate
C) Gamma amino butyric acid (GABA)
D) Beta-endorphin

Question 3: Sertoli cells have receptors for?
A) Inhibin
B) Luteinising hormone
C) Follicle stimulating hormone
D) Melatonin

Question 4: During acclimatization to high altitude all of the

following take place except?
A) Increase in minute ventilation
B) Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors
C) Increase in the sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia
D) Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left

Question 5: The force of muscle contraction can be increased by

all of the following except?
A) Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
B) Increasing the number of motor units activated
C) Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor

neurons
D) Recruiting larger motor units

Question 6: The blood in the vessels normally does not clot

because?
A) Vitamin K antagonists are present in plasma
B) Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
C) Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
D) Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx

Question 7: During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic

valve takes place at the?
A) Beginning of systole
B) End of isovolumetric contraction
C) End of diastole
D) End of diastasis

Question 8: The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is?
A) Glycine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Aspartate
D) Glutamate

Question 9: One intern calculated the concentration of O2 in

blood as 0.0025 ml/ml of blood. Considering atmospheric

pressure as 760 mm Hg, how much approx. O2 tension could have

been in the blood?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 60 mm Hg
C) 80 mm Hg
D) 100 mm Hg

Question 10: Which of the following is procoagulation protein?
A) Thrombomodulin
B) Protein C
C) Protein S
D) Thrombin

Question 11: In which of the following forms the Anti diuretic

hormone (ADH) is circulated is plasma?
A) Bound to neurophysin - I
B) Bound to neurophysin - II
C) Bound to plasma albumin
D) Free form

Question 1: A 41 year old woman working as an Executive

Director is convinced that the management has denied her

promotion by preparing false reports about her competence and

have forged her signatures on sensitive documents so as to

convict her. She files a complaint in the police station and

requests for security. Despite all this she attends to her work

and manages the household. She is suffering from?
A) Paranoid Schizophrenia
B) Late onset Psychosis
C) Persistent Delusional Disorder
D) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

Question 2: A 16 year old boy does not attend school because of

the fear of being harmed by school mates. He thinks that his

classmates laugh at and talk about him. He is even scared of

going out to the market. He is most likely suffering from?
A) Anxiety neurosis
B) Manic Depressive Psychosis
C) Adjustment reaction
D) Schizophrenia

pg questions set 2

2007-11-25T00:25:00.001-08:00

Question 1: Which prominent ocular manifestation is associated
with Marfan's syndrome?
A) Microcornea
B) Microspherophakia
C) Megalocornea
D) Ectopia lentis

Question 2: A two months old child presents with epiphora and
regurgitation. The most probable diagnosis is?
A) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B) Buphthalmos
C) Congenital dacryocystitis
D) Encysted mucocele

Question 3: All are ocular emergencies except?
A) Angle closure glaucoma
B) Central serous retinopathy
C) Retinal detachment
D) Central retinal arterial occulsion

Question 4: "Photo dynamic therapy" is used in the eye for the
following disease?
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Uveitis
D) Wet AMD (Age relaged macular degeneration)

Question 5: A two week old child presents with unilateral
cataract, Which of the following statement represents the best
management advice?
A) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four weeks
B) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four months
C) The best age to operate him to get the best visual results
is four years
D) The eye is already lost, only cosmetic correction is
required

Question 6: The most common condition of inherited blindness
due to mitochondrial chromosomal anomaly is?
A) Retinopathy of prematurity
B) Leber's Hereditary Optic neuropathy
C) Retinitis pigmentosa
D) Retinal detachment

Question 7: Maximum density of goblet cells is seen in?
A) Superior conjunctiva
B) Inferior conjunctiva
C) Nasal conjunctiva
D) Temporal conjunctiva

Question 8: Latanoprost used topically in glaucoma primarily
acts by ?
A) Decreasing aqueous humor formation
B) Increasing uveoscleral outflow
C) Releasing pupillary block
D) Increasing trabecular outflow

Question 9: In which of the following conditions, severe
itching of the eye with ropy discharge in a 10 year old boy
with symptoms aggravating in summer season is most likely
present?
A) Trachoma
B) Vernal Keratoconjunctivitis
C) Acute Conjunctivitis
D) Blepharitis

Question 10: Polychromatic lustre is seen in ?
A) Complicated cataract
B) Diabetes Mellitus
C) Post Radiation Cataract
D) Congenital Cataract

Question 11: A 12 year old girl with tremors and emotional
lability has a golden brown discoloration of Descement's
membrane. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Fabry's Disease
B) Wilson Disease
C) Glycogen storage disease
D) Acute rheumatic fever

Question 12: All of the following can cause a white pupillary
reflex except?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Cataract
C) Retrolental fibroplasia
D) Glaucoma

Question 13: A 10-month-old child weighing 8 kg has Bitot spots
in both eyes. Which of the following is the most appropriate
schedule to prescribe vitamin A to this child?
A) 2 lack units intramuscular (IM) day 0, 14
B) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 14
C) 2 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14
D) 1 lack units IM on day 0, 1 and 14

Question 14: Arlt's line is seen in ?
A) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
B) Pterygium
C) Ocular pemphigoid
D) Trachoma

Question 15: Which of the following will be the most important
adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
A) Atropine sulphate eye ointment
B) Dexamethasone eye drops
C) Pilocarpine eye drops
D) Lignocaine eye drops

Question 1: Management plan for osteogenic sarcoma of the lower
end of femur must include?
A) Radiotherapy - amputation - chemotherapy
B) Surgery alone
C) Chemotherapy - limb salvage surgery - chemotherapy
D) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy

Question 2: An army recruit, smoker and 6 months into training
started complaining of pain at posterior medial aspect of both
legs. There was acute point tenderness and the pain was
aggravated on physical activity. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Burger's disease
B) Gout
C) Lumbar canal stenosis
D) Stress fracture

Question 3: Tuberculosis of the spine commonly affects all of
the following parts of the vertebra except?
A) Body
B) Lamina
C) Spinous process
D) Pedicle

Question 4: Aspetic loosening in cemented total hip
replacement, occurs as a result of hypersensitivity response
to?
A) Titaneum debris
B) High density polythene debris
C) N, N - Dimethyltryptamine (DMT)
D) Free radicals

Question 5: In fracture of the olecranon, excision of the
proximal fragment is indicated in all of the following
situations except?
A) Old ununited fractures
B) Non-articular fracture
C) Fracture extending to coronoid process
D) Elderly patient

Question 6: All of the following can be the complications of a
malunited Colles fracture except?
A) Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon
B) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Carpal instability

Question 7: In some old fractures, cartilaginous tissue forms
over the fractured bone ends with a cavity in between
containing clear fluid. This condition called as?
A) Delayed Union
B) Slow union
C) Non union
D) Pseudoarthrosis

Question 1: In right middle ear pathology Weber's test will be?
A) Normal
B) Centralised
C) Lateralised to right side
D) Lateralised to left side

Question 2: Meniere's disease is characterized by ?
A) Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
B) Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
C) Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
D) Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss

Question 3: Which of the following statements best represents
Bell's paralysis ?
A) Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
B) Combined paralysis of the facial. Trigeminal, and abducens
nerves
C) Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
D) Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye

Question 4: Fordyce's (spots) Granules in Oral Cavity arise
from ?
A) Mucous glands
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Taste buds
D) Minor salivary glands

Question 5: In which of the following locations there is
collection of pus in the quinsy?
A) Peritonsillar space
B) Paraphyangeal space
C) Retrophyrangeal space
D) Within the tonsil

Question 1: The neonatal kidney achieves concentrating ability
equivalent to adult's kidney by?
A) One year of age
B) Eighteen months of age
C) Three to six months of age
D) Just before puberty

Question 2: Bone marrow transplantation can be used as a
treatment for all except?
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Adrenoleukodystrophy
C) Hurler's syndrome
D) Hemochromatosis

Question 3: A two-month old child is able to ?
A) Show a positive parachute protective reflex
B) Hold head steady in a seated position
C) Lift head and chest off a flat surface
D) Sustain head level with the body when placed in ventral
suspension

Question 4: Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by
all except?
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)
D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Question 5: All of the following are neural tube defects
except?
A) Myelomeningocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Encephalocele
D) Holoprosencephaly

Question 6: A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to
you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability &
pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe
Pallor. Investigations showed Hb- 3.8 gm%, MCV - 58 fl, MCH -
19.4 pg/cell. Blood film shows osmotic fragility is normal
(target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of
erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Acute lymphoblastic anaemia
C) Hemoglobin D disease
D) Hereditary spherocytosis

Question 7: A 5 year old child presents with history of fever
off and on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the
body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination
reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most
likely diagnosis is?
A) Acute leukemia
B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C) Hypersplenism
D) Aplastic anaemia

Question 8: A 5 year old girl came with history of
progressively increasing pallor since birth and
hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant
test for achieving diagnosis?
A) Hb electrophoresis
B) Peripheral smear examination
C) Osmotic fragility test
D) Bone marrow examination

Question 9: All are the features of absence seizures except?
A) Usually seen in childhood
B) 3 Hz spike wave in EEG
C) Postictal confusion
D) Precipitation by hyperventilation

Question 10: A 10 month old child presents with two weeks'
history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial
CT Scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most
likely etiological agent is?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 11: Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low
posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are
characterstics of ?
A) Klinefelter syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Noonan syndrome

Question 12: A five day old, full term male infant was severely
cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially
and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed
improvement in oxygenation. The most likely diagnosis of this
infant is?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Transposition of great vessels
C) Truncus Arteriosus
D) Tricuspid Atresia

Question 1: All of the following statements about Hairy cell
leukemia are true except?
A) Splenomegaly is conspicuous
B) Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes
C) Cells are positive for Tartarate Resistant Acid Phosphatase
(TRAP)
D) The cells express CD25 consistently

Question 2: Splenic macrophages in Gaucher's disease differ
from those in ceroid histiocytes by staining positive for?
A) Lipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Acid fast stain
D) Iron

Question 3: Biopsy from a mole on the foot shows cytologic
Atypia of melanocytes and diffuse epidermal infiltration by
Anaplastic cells, which are also present in the papillary and
reticular dermis. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Melanoma, Clark level IV
B) Congenital melanocytic nevus
C) Dysplastic nevus
D) Melanoma, Clark level III

Question 4: A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain
of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed
new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumbed to his
illness within 24 hours of admission. The heart revealed
presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and
anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic
examination is most likely to reveal?
A) Edema in between normal myofibres
B) Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils
C) Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of
granulation tissue
D) Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden
macrophages

Question 5: A 40 year old man presented with painless
haematuria. Bimanual examination revealed a ballotable mass
over the right flank. Subsequently right nephrectomy was done
and the mass was seen to be composed of cells with clear
cytoplasm. Areas of haemorrhage and necrosis were frequent.
Cytogenetic analysis of this mass is likely to reveal the
abnormality of ?
A) Chromosome 1
B) Chromosome 3
C) Chromosome 11
D) Chromosome 17

Question 6: The most common histologic type of Thyroid cancer
is?
A) Medullary type
B) Follicular type
C) Papillary type
D) Anaplastic type

Question 7: The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian
population is ?
A) Tongue
B) Floor of mouth
C) Alveobuccal complex
D) Lip

Question 8: Which of the following gene defects is associated
with development of Medullary carcinoma of Thyroid?
A) Ret proto Oncogene
B) FAP gene
C) Rb gene
D) BRCA 1 gene

Question 9: All of the following statements are true about
sickle cell disease except?
A) Patients may require frequent blood transfusions
B) Acute infection is the most common cause of mortality before
3 years of age
C) There is positive correlation between concentration HbS and
polymerization of HbS
D) Patients presents early in life before 6 months of age

Question 10: All of the following are good prognostic features
for Hodgkin's disease except?
A) Haemoglobin > 10 g/dl
B) WBC count < 15000/mm3
C) Absolute lymphocyte count < 600 / microliters
D) Age < 45 yrs

Question 11: Which of the following is the most common
cytogenetic abnormality in adult Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
?
A) Trisomy 8
B) 20 q-
C) 5p
D) monosomy 7

pg questions set 1

2007-11-24T23:34:00.001-08:00

Question 1: Which of the following is the drug of first choice for Non-Gonococcal Urethritis?

A) Ceftriaxone

B) Ciprofloxacin

C) Doxycycline

D) Minocycline

Question 2: An 80 year old asymptomatic woman was detected to have a monoclonal spike on serum electrophoresis (IgG levels 1.5g/dL). Bone marrow revealed plasma cells of 8%. The most likely diagnosis is?

A) Multiple myeloma

B) Indolent myeloma

C) Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance

D) Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

Question 3: HBAic level in blood explains?

A) Acute rise of sugar

B) Long term status of blood sugar

C) Hepatorenal syndrome

D) Chronic pancreatitis

Question 4: Mr. and Mrs. Annadurai have a 2 month old baby suffering with Down syndrome. Karyotype of Mrs Annadurai shows translocation variety of Down syndrome. Which of the following investigations will you advise to the parents before the next pregnancy?

A) Triple test

B) alpha - fetoprotein

C) Karyotyping

D) beta - human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

Question 5: All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except?

A) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

B) Acute intermittent porphyria

C) Lead intoxication

D) Arsenic intoxication

Question 6: A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is ?

A) Acute pyogenic meningitis

B) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis

C) Neurocysticercosis

D) Carcinomatous meningitis

Question 7: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC is most likely characterized by?

A) Significant numbers of schiztocytes

B) A brisk reticulocutosis

C) Decreased coagulation factor levels

D) Significant thrombocytopenia

Question 8: Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of ?

A) Iron deficiency anaemia

B) Anaemia of chronic disease

C) Hemochromatosis

D) Lead poisoning

Question 9: A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was?

A) Verapamil

B) Digoxin

C) Grvedilol

D) Propranolol

Question 10: All of the following are seen in cardiac tamponade except?

A) Pulsus paradoxus

B) Diastolic collapse of right ventricle on echocardiogram

C) Electrical alternans

D) Kussmaul's sign

Question 11: Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection?

A) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues

B) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression

C) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients

D) In latent phase HIV is minimal replication

Question 12: In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is characterised by the presence of all the following except?

A) Red cell casts

B) Acanthocytes

C) Crenated red cells

D) Dysmorphic red cells

Question 13: Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynaecomastia except?

A) Testosterone

B) Prolactin

C) Estradiol

D) Luteinizing hormone

Question 14: All are true regarding idiopathic edema of women, except?

A) It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention

B) It is not related to menstrual cycles

C) There is increased water retention in upright position

D) ACE inhibitors can be useful in some cases

Question 15: A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5gm/dL and ESR 18 mm 1st hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?

A) Nutritional rickets

B) Renal rickets

C) Hyperparathyroidism

D) Skeletal dysplasia

Question 16: A 28 year old lady has put on weight (10 Kg over a period of 3 years), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrhoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation?

A) Serum electrolytes

B) Plasma cortisol

C) Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis

D) T3, T4 and TSH

Question 17: An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is?

A) Wegener's granulomatosis

B) Polyarteritis nodosa

C) Takayasu's arteritis

D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Question 18: A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding out base deficit/ access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood?

A) Ref ford nomogram

B) DuBio's nomogram

C) Goldman constant field equation

D) Siggard- Andersen nomogram

Question 19: A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptive for many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression, irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dL. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in serum. All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except?

A) Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion

B) Neurological symptoms by decreased synthesis of biogenic amines

C) Decreased hemoglobin level

D) Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level

Question 20: A 45 - year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or impalpable pulses in the feet, besides gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as follows:

Parameters
Fasting
1 hr
2 hr

Blood glucose (mg/dL)
155
270
205

Urine glucose
-ve
+++
++

Ketone bodies
-ve
-ve
-ve

Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned case?

A) She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

B) She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

C) She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation

D) Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of diabetes

Question 21: A 20 year old woman presents with bilateral conductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigations reveal total leukocyte count 12000/mm3, red cell casts in the urine and 12000/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A) Henoch-Schonlein purpura

B) Polyarteritis nodosa

C) Wegener's granulomatosis

D) Disseminated tuberculosis

Question 22: A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the following investigations will be useful in differential diagnosis except?

A) CD4/CD8 counts in the blood

B) Serum ACE levels

C) CECT of chest

D) Gallium scan

Question 23: Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of Cushing's syndrome?

A) Loss of diurnal variation

B) Increased ACTH

C) Increased plasma Cortisol

D) Increased urinary metabolites of Cortisol

Question 24: The occurence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as?

A) Jod- Basedow effect

B) Wolff- Chaikoff effect

C) Thyrotoxicosis factitia

D) de Quervain's thyroiditis

Question 25: The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is?

A) T3

B) T4

C) TSH

D) Thyroglobulin

Question 26: Ataxia telangiectacia is characterized by all of the following except ?

A) Chronic sinopulmonary disease

B) Decreased level of alfa fetoprotein

C) Chromosomal breakage

D) IgA deficiency

Question 27: The patients having acute cardiac failure do not show oedema, because?

A) The plasma oncotic pressure is high

B) There is renal compensation

C) Increased cardiac output

D) There is a fall in the systemic capillary hydrostatic pressure

Question 28: Duchenne Muscular Dsytrophy is a disease of ?

A) Neuromuscular junction

B) Sarcolemmal proteins

C) Muscle contractile proteins

D) Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness

Question 29: All of the following are associated with low complement levels except?

A) Lupus nephritis

B) Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis

C) Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome

D) Post-infections glomerulonephritis

Question 1: Which of the following statements is true about hapten?

A) It induces brisk immune response

B) It needs carrier to induce immune response

C) It is a T-independent Antigen

D) It has no association with MHC

Question 2: Epstein Barr (EB) virus has been implicated in the following malignancies except?

A) Hodgkin's disease

B) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

D) Multiple myeloma

Question 3: A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except?

A) CFA - 1

B) P1 - Pili

C) CS - 2

D) K 88

Question 4: A 20 years old male patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows gram negative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for culture would be?

A) Thayer - Martin Medium

B) Blood agar with X & V factors

C) Chocholate agar with isovitale X

D) Tellurite blood agar

Question 5: Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?

A) Cholera toxin

B) Shiga toxin

C) Pertussis toxin

D) LT of enterotoxigenic E. coli

Question 6: A man, after skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule in his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is?

A) Clostridium tetani

B) Listeria monocytogenes

C) Bacillus anthracis

D) Actinomyces sp.

Question 7: A farmer presenting with fever off and on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage except?

A) Standard Agglutination test

B) 2 Mercapto-ethanol test

C) Complement fixation test

D) Coomb' s test

Question 8: A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the 1st day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion 1 year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of beta-haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Streptococcus agalactiae

C) Peptostreptococci

D) Enterococcus faecium

Question 9: Which of the following viruses is not a common cause of viral encephalitis?

A) Herpes simplex virus type 2

B) Japanese encephalitis virus

C) Nipah virus

D) Cytomegalovirus

Question 10: An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except?

A) Parainfluenza viruses

B) Influenza virus A

C) Respiratory syncytial virus

D) Mumps virus

Question 11: All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except?

A) It is transmitted by feco-oral route

B) Asymptomatic infections are common in children

C) There is a single serotype causing infection

D) Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity

Question 12: Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except?

A) Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen

B) Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings

C) Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture

D) Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAI) antibodies in a single serum specimen

Question 13: Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?

A) Yellow fever is endemic in India

B) Dengue virus has only one serotype

C) Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is transmitted by ticks

D) Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever

Question 14: All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except?

A) Myocarditis

B) Pleurodynia

C) Herpangina

D) Hemorrhagic fever

Question 15: An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis?

A) Herpes simplex virus

B) Human herpes virus 8

C) Cytomegalovirus

D) Epstein-Barr (EB) virus

Question 16: A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is?

A) Hepatitis B virus

B) Hepatitis C virus

C) Hepatitis E virus

D) Hepatitis A virus

Question 17: A 30 year old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram - positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic, occuring in short chains. Direct wet mount from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is?

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Corynebacterium sp.

C) Enterococcus sp.

D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Question 18: The most common agent associated with neonatal bacterial meningitis is?

A) Haemophilus influenzae type b

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) Streptococcus agalactiae

Question 19: Bacterial meningitis in children (2 months - 12 years of age) is usually due to the following organisms except?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Neisseria meningitidis

C) Hemophilus influenzae type B

D) Listeria monocytogenes

Question 20: A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E coli is likely to be the causative agent?

A) O157:H7

B) O159:H7

C) O107:H7

D) O55:H7

Question 21: In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism except?

A) Vibrio cholerae

B) Shigella sp.

C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus

D) Staphylococcus aureus