tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-13433339.post-1135173537051645442005-12-21T14:18:00.000+01:002007-01-16T01:30:30.083+01:00Yo poker-dogs,<br /><br />Been really lazy writing, but I am a bit frustrated since no one is responding to my messages.<br />I have been playing alot lately and my tournament results have been marked by bad-beats. Why am I losing with AA to Q3 all-in pre flop?<br />Why do people call my monsters with rags?<br />Why do monsters loose to rags?<br /><br />I have no other answers to the questions above than that good, solid, mathematically correct poker will win in the long run.<br /><br />Finished second in a MTT last night. 70 entrants, buy-in Euro 20 gave me Euro 240.<br />I played solid all the way and kept my stack close to average all along the way without any spectacular hands. My monsters held for once.<br /><br />When I finally was heads up my opponent had 75% of the chips and I obviously 25% the following happens:<br /><br />I have BB and gets 64 unsuited. My opponent calls and the flop is: 359 (rainbow).<br />I have an opened-end str8 draw. I decide to move all-in. My opponent calls with j3 and nothing happens on turn or river so fi wins the tournament with 3389j. Was it wrong to move all-in?<br /><br />I have 8 outs to hit the str8 (approx 32%) plus the probability of hitting fours or sixes. I also have the value of the chance that fi folds which gives me the blinds. I´m not gonna present the maths behind, but I think that the move was correct (you have to take the stack sizes into account as well).<br /><br />What do you guys/gals think?<br /><br />Regards<br /><br />Santa Claus<div class="blogger-post-footer">Copyright: ©2005-2008 | e-mail: info@pokercasinoguide.com | webb: www.pokercasinoguide.com</div>Snabben73http://www.blogger.com/profile/08608960846015270693noreply@blogger.com